ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Made Easy 4.0 The Hematologic System Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient is taking levofloxacin. What does the nurse know to be true regarding this drug?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Levofloxacin is a fluoroquinolone antibiotic available in both oral and intravenous forms. It is not classified as an aminoglycoside. A well-documented adverse effect of fluoroquinolones is tendon rupture, particularly in older adults and those on corticosteroid therapy. Hypertension is not a common side effect of levofloxacin. Patients should be advised to report any tendon pain or swelling immediately.
Question 2 of 9
The following drugs are most commonly associated with ototoxicity:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Gentamicin is highly associated with ototoxicity, especially in patients with preexisting renal impairment or prolonged use.
Question 3 of 9
A patient presents fully conscious with acute falciparum malaria following a visit to Nigeria. Which of the following treatments is most appropriate?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Acute falciparum malaria from Nigeria, a chloroquine-resistant area, requires effective therapy. Chloroquine is ineffective due to resistance. Proguanil/atovaquone (Malarone) treats uncomplicated falciparum malaria, rapid-acting and well-tolerated, most appropriate here. Primaquine targets liver stages, not acute blood infection. Pyrimethamine and hydroxychloroquine are less effective. Malarone's efficacy ensures rapid parasite clearance, vital in this potentially severe disease.
Question 4 of 9
A patient has been taking a beta blocker for 4 weeks as part of his antianginal therapy. He also has type II diabetes and hyperthyroidism. When discussing possible adverse effects, the nurse will include which information?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Option E is the correct answer. When a patient with type II diabetes is taking a beta blocker, it's important to monitor blood glucose levels regularly for possible changes in glucose levels. Beta blockers can mask the symptoms of hypoglycemia, such as tremors and rapid heartbeat, which can make it harder for patients to recognize when their blood sugar is too low. On the other hand, beta blockers can also potentially lead to hyperglycemia as they can blunt the body's response to hypoglycemia by inhibiting the release of counter-regulatory hormones like epinephrine. Therefore, monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial in such patients to prevent complications related to blood sugar fluctuations.
Question 5 of 9
The patient receives aspirin. The nurse assesses an adverse effect to this drug when the patient makes which response?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Aspirin, an NSAID, inhibits platelet aggregation and can cause gastrointestinal bleeding, leading to dark, tarry stools (melena) from upper GI hemorrhage . This adverse effect requires urgent assessment, as it signals potential internal bleeding, a serious complication. Nasal stuffiness isn't linked to aspirin unless related to an allergic reaction (rare). Headaches from lights suggest photophobia, unrelated to aspirin's effects. Frequent urination isn't a typical side effect. The nurse identifies dark stools as a critical sign of aspirin's impact on gastric mucosa and coagulation, necessitating intervention, making choice A the correct adverse effect to assess.
Question 6 of 9
What decreases the renin angiotensin aldosterone system?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: ACE inhibitors decrease the renin angiotensin aldosterone system by blocking the angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE), which converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II. By inhibiting this enzyme, ACE inhibitors reduce the production of angiotensin II, a potent vasoconstrictor, and lower aldosterone secretion. This leads to vasodilation, decreased blood pressure, and reduced retention of sodium and water. Consequently, ACE inhibitors are commonly used in the management of hypertension, heart failure, and chronic kidney disease.
Question 7 of 9
A 5-year-old boy is brought to his primary care physician by his parents who say that he often has trouble catching his breath when he has been playing hard outside. He is allergic to peanuts. At the moment, he is breathing fine. Which of the following drugs is commonly used to diagnose suspected asthma?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Suspected asthma in a child with exertional dyspnea requires diagnostic confirmation. Methacholine , a muscarinic agonist, provokes bronchoconstriction in asthmatics during a challenge test, confirming airway hyperresponsiveness. Albuterol is a bronchodilator for treatment, not diagnosis. Neostigmine , a cholinesterase inhibitor, is unrelated. Nicotine and Pilocarpine (E) are irrelevant. Methacholine's ability to induce reversible bronchospasm, measured by spirometry, distinguishes asthmatics from normals, making it standard for diagnosis when symptoms are intermittent, as here.
Question 8 of 9
Pharmacogenetics is a relatively new area within pharmacology. Which statement best describes the potential of this new area?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Pharmacogenetics tailors drugs to genetic profiles (e.g., CYP2C19 for clopidogrel), minimizing unpredictable idiosyncratic responses like rashes. Reducing drug numbers or errors isn't genetics-driven. Cost and efficacy improve indirectly. Customization prevents adverse reactions, its core potential.
Question 9 of 9
A 13-year-old male has begun having spells of wheezing and difficulty breathing while playing outside. He is diagnosed with asthma and given an inhaler to treat acute attacks. His medication is working well, but he would also like something to prevent attacks from happening. Which of the following drugs would be best to add to his regimen?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Asthma prevention in a child needs a long-acting agent. Salmeterol , a long-acting β2-agonist, reduces attack frequency. Albuterol and Epinephrine are short-acting. Ipratropium aids acute relief. Isoproterenol (E) is outdated. Salmeterol's prolonged bronchodilation suits prophylaxis.