ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Made Easy 4.0 The Hematologic System Questions
Question 1 of 5
A patient is taking levofloxacin. What does the nurse know to be true regarding this drug?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Levofloxacin is a fluoroquinolone antibiotic available in both oral and intravenous forms. It is not classified as an aminoglycoside. A well-documented adverse effect of fluoroquinolones is tendon rupture, particularly in older adults and those on corticosteroid therapy. Hypertension is not a common side effect of levofloxacin. Patients should be advised to report any tendon pain or swelling immediately.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is monitoring a patient taking furosemide for heart failure. Which electrolyte imbalance must the nurse be alert for?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Furosemide, a loop diuretic, promotes the excretion of potassium, sodium, and water. Hypokalemia (low potassium) is a common side effect and can lead to muscle weakness, arrhythmias, and other complications. Hyperkalemia (A) is unlikely with furosemide. Hypernatremia (B) and hyponatremia (D) are less common but should still be monitored.
Question 3 of 5
A client taking probenecid is complaining of gout pain. Which of the following medication should the nurse expect to be administered?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Acetaminophen is often used to manage pain in patients with gout, as it does not interfere with uric acid levels. Aspirin is contraindicated because it can reduce the effectiveness of probenecid. Orphenadrine and tizanidine are muscle relaxants and are not indicated for gout pain. Acetaminophen is a safe and effective option for pain relief in this context.
Question 4 of 5
A 17-year-old client is taking phenytoin (Dilantin) for the treatment of seizures. Phenytoin blood level reveals to be 25 mcg/ml. Which of the following symptoms would be expected as a result of the laboratory result?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 5 of 5
A patient presents fully conscious with acute falciparum malaria following a visit to Nigeria. Which of the following treatments is most appropriate?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Acute falciparum malaria from Nigeria, a chloroquine-resistant area, requires effective therapy. Chloroquine is ineffective due to resistance. Proguanil/atovaquone (Malarone) treats uncomplicated falciparum malaria, rapid-acting and well-tolerated, most appropriate here. Primaquine targets liver stages, not acute blood infection. Pyrimethamine and hydroxychloroquine are less effective. Malarone's efficacy ensures rapid parasite clearance, vital in this potentially severe disease.