ATI RN
Virtual ATI Pharmacology Pre Assessment Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient is taking aspirin for arthritis. Which adverse reaction should the nurse teach the patient to report to the health care provider?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Tinnitus, or ringing in the ears, is a classic sign of aspirin toxicity, also known as salicylism. Aspirin can cause ototoxicity at high doses, leading to hearing disturbances. Patients taking aspirin for arthritis are often on long-term therapy, which increases the risk of toxicity. Seizures, sinusitis, and palpitations are not typically associated with aspirin use. Therefore, nurses should educate patients to report tinnitus immediately, as it may indicate the need for dose adjustment or discontinuation of the medication to prevent further complications.
Question 2 of 9
A patient is to receive a chemotherapy protocol that includes an alkylating agent, an antimetabolite, and an antitumor antibiotic. What is the nurse's best response when the patient asks the nurse why so much chemotherapy is needed?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Combination chemotherapy is used to target cancer cells at different stages of the cell cycle and through multiple mechanisms of action. Alkylating agents, antimetabolites, and antitumor antibiotics each work differently: alkylating agents damage DNA, antimetabolites interfere with DNA synthesis, and antitumor antibiotics inhibit RNA synthesis. By combining these drugs, the treatment can kill more cancer cells and reduce the likelihood of resistance. This approach maximizes tumor cell killing while minimizing the risk of relapse. Dose-limiting toxicities still exist, but the combination strategy allows for lower doses of each drug, reducing individual side effects.
Question 3 of 9
A patient is in the intensive care unit because of an acute myocardial infarction. He is experiencing severe ventricular dysrhythmias. The nurse will prepare to give which drug of choice for this dysrhythmia?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Amiodarone is the drug of choice for treating severe ventricular dysrhythmias, such as those experienced by the patient in the intensive care unit with acute myocardial infarction. It is a class III antiarrhythmic medication that works by prolonging the action potential duration and refractory period, thereby helping to stabilize the electrical activity of the heart. Amiodarone is effective in treating various types of ventricular dysrhythmias, including ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation, making it a suitable choice in this scenario. Diltiazem and verapamil are calcium channel blockers primarily used for supraventricular arrhythmias and are not the first-line treatment for severe ventricular dysrhythmias. Adenosine is used for terminating supraventricular tachycardias, not ventricular dysrhythmias. Amiodarone
Question 4 of 9
An older adult patient with a hip fracture became unresponsive 20 minutes after receiving morphine 3 mg intravenously. Which actions would the nurse take?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The patient's unresponsiveness after receiving morphine is likely due to opioid-induced respiratory depression, a potentially life-threatening side effect. The nurse should first assess the patient's airway, breathing, and circulation (ABCs) and call for additional assistance. Supporting breathing with a bag-valve-mask device is critical to ensure adequate oxygenation. Naloxone, an opioid antagonist, should be prepared to reverse the effects of morphine. Flumazenil (A) is used for benzodiazepine overdose, not opioids. Reporting a stroke (B) is incorrect because the symptoms are consistent with opioid toxicity, not a stroke. Explaining unresponsiveness as a desired outcome (D) is inappropriate and dangerous.
Question 5 of 9
Agency that enforces the control of drugs considered to have a potential for abuse:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA) is the agency responsible for enforcing the control of drugs considered to have a potential for abuse in the United States. It is the primary federal agency involved in combating drug trafficking and the illegal distribution of controlled substances. The DEA works to regulate and enforce the Controlled Substances Act, which classifies drugs into different schedules based on their accepted medical use and potential for abuse and addiction. This agency plays a crucial role in preventing the diversion and misuse of controlled substances, as well as ensuring public safety and health.
Question 6 of 9
Liquid preparation that contains one or more chemical substance dissolved in a suitable solvent
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A solution is a liquid preparation that contains one or more chemical substances dissolved in a suitable solvent. The solute (chemical substance) is evenly dispersed and mixed with the solvent, resulting in a homogenous mixture. Solutions are commonly used in medicine for oral administration, injections, topical treatments, and various other applications due to their ability to provide accurate dosing and rapid absorption into the body. decoction is a liquid derived from boiling plant material, fluid extract is a concentrated liquid extract of a substance, spirits are alcoholic solutions, and syrup is a viscous solution containing sugar.
Question 7 of 9
Which drug goes through extensive first-pass hepatic metabolism?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Propranolol is the drug that undergoes extensive first-pass hepatic metabolism. First-pass metabolism refers to the metabolism of a drug by the liver before it enters the systemic circulation. In the case of propranolol, a significant portion of the drug is metabolized by the liver before reaching the systemic circulation, leading to reduced bioavailability. This is why propranolol is often given in higher doses to achieve the desired therapeutic effect. Heparin, insulin, nitroglycerine, and warfarin do not undergo significant first-pass metabolism by the liver.
Question 8 of 9
Two tests should be monitored for a patient currently on Warfarin. What are those two tests? Select ALL that apply.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When a patient is on Warfarin therapy, the two primary tests that need to be monitored are the Prothrombin Time (PT) and the International Normalized Ratio (INR). Warfarin works by inhibiting the activity of Vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, and both PT and INR are measures of the extrinsic pathway of coagulation, which is primarily affected by Warfarin. PT measures the time it takes for blood to clot, while INR is a standardized calculation based on the PT value to monitor the effectiveness and safety of Warfarin therapy. Monitoring these tests helps ensure that the patient's blood is not too thick (increased risk of clotting) or too thin (increased risk of bleeding) while on Warfarin.
Question 9 of 9
Common side e昀昀ects of iron supplements include (select all that apply):
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Iron supplements are known to commonly cause gastrointestinal side effects, such as constipation, upset stomach, and nausea. Constipation is a common side effect of iron supplements due to the way iron can harden the stool and slow down bowel movements. Upset stomach and nausea can occur because iron supplements can irritate the stomach lining, leading to discomfort and feelings of queasiness. It is important for individuals taking iron supplements to be aware of these potential side effects and to speak with their healthcare provider if they are experiencing severe or persistent symptoms.