ATI RN
Pharmacology Cardiovascular Drugs Review Questions
Question 1 of 5
A patient is taking a potassium-depleting diuretic and digoxin. The nurse expects that a low potassium level (hypokalemia) could have what effect on digoxin?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because hypokalemia can lead to increased sensitivity to digoxin, potentially causing digoxin toxicity. Low potassium levels impair the function of the sodium-potassium pump, which is crucial for maintaining the appropriate intracellular sodium and potassium levels. This can result in increased binding of digoxin to sodium-potassium ATPase, leading to enhanced digoxin effects. Option B is incorrect because hypokalemia would not decrease digoxin sensitivity; in fact, it would likely increase sensitivity. Option C is incorrect as hypokalemia does have an effect on digoxin sensitivity. Option D is incorrect because hypokalemia does not cause a low-average serum digoxin sensitivity level; it actually increases sensitivity.
Question 2 of 5
A patient who is taking psychotropic medication is experiencing constipation. Which intervention would the nurse plan for the patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: Choice A is the correct answer because increasing water intake and consuming fiber-rich foods like green vegetables and bran can help alleviate constipation without the need for additional medication. Water helps soften stool, while fiber promotes bowel movement. Choice B lacks sufficient fiber intake and includes liver, which may not be well-tolerated by everyone. Choice C involves daily use of laxatives and stool softeners, which can lead to dependency and worsen constipation in the long run. Choice D suggests using a retention enema, which is an invasive intervention and should be reserved for severe cases.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is discouraged because his plan to reduce negative symptoms of schizophrenia (apathy, avolition, inattentiveness, poor socialization, poor eye contact and flat affect, etc.) in a client is not working. The mentor’s remark that helps place the problem in perspective is:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: "Negative symptoms have been associated with prefrontal cortical pathology." This is the most appropriate response because it provides a scientific explanation for the nurse's difficulty in reducing the negative symptoms of schizophrenia. Negative symptoms in schizophrenia, such as apathy and inattentiveness, are believed to be related to dysfunction in the prefrontal cortex of the brain. Understanding this underlying pathology helps the nurse approach the situation with a more informed perspective. Choice A is incorrect because it does not address the specific issue of negative symptoms in schizophrenia and does not provide any helpful insight for the nurse. Choice B is incorrect as it suggests a simplistic view of clients being stubborn, which does not consider the complex neurobiological factors at play in schizophrenia. Choice D is incorrect because while it acknowledges the role of psychosocial and environmental factors, it does not address the specific neuropathology associated with negative symptoms in schizophrenia.
Question 4 of 5
A patient has been admitted to the emergency department with a suspected overdose of a tricyclic antidepressant. The nurse will prepare for what immediate concern?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Cardiac dysrhythmias. Tricyclic antidepressant overdose can lead to sodium channel blockade, causing prolonged QT intervals and various cardiac arrhythmias, including ventricular tachycardia and fibrillation. This is a critical concern as it can lead to life-threatening situations like cardiac arrest. Immediate monitoring and intervention are necessary. Hypertension (A) may occur due to anticholinergic effects, but it is not the most immediate concern. Renal failure (B) and gastrointestinal bleeding (D) are not typically associated with tricyclic antidepressant overdose and are not immediate concerns in this scenario.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is reviewing the classes of antidysrhythmic drugs. Amiodarone (Cordarone) is classified on the Vaughan Williams classification as a class III drug, which means it works by which mechanism of action?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because Amiodarone (Cordarone) is classified as a class III antidysrhythmic drug which acts by prolonging the action potential duration. This leads to prolongation of the refractory period of the heart, helping to prevent reentry of arrhythmias. Choice A is incorrect as blocking slow calcium channels is the mechanism of action for class IV drugs. Choice C is incorrect as blocking sodium channels is the mechanism for class I drugs. Choice D is incorrect as decreasing spontaneous depolarization is the mechanism for class II drugs.