A patient is suffering from tendonitis of the knee. The nurse is reviewing the patient’s medication administration record and recognizes that which adjuvant medication is most appropriate for this type of pain?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Corticosteroid. Corticosteroids are commonly used as adjuvant medication for tendonitis due to their anti-inflammatory properties, which can help reduce pain and swelling in the affected area. They work by suppressing the inflammatory response in the tendon, thereby alleviating pain. Antidepressants (A) and anticonvulsants (B) are not typically used for tendonitis pain. Local anesthesia (D) provides temporary pain relief but does not address the underlying inflammation associated with tendonitis.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: To dissolve the clot in the coronary artery. Thrombolytic drugs are used to break down blood clots in the coronary arteries, restoring blood flow to the heart muscle during an acute myocardial infarction. This helps to prevent further damage to the heart tissue and reduce the risk of complications. Choice A is incorrect because the primary goal of thrombolytic therapy is not to relieve chest pain but to restore blood flow. Choice B is incorrect as thrombolytic drugs do not prevent further clot formation but rather address existing clots. Choice D is incorrect because thrombolytic drugs are not used to control bleeding but to dissolve clots.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Numbness and tingling of extremities. This is a potential adverse effect of antitubercular drugs known as peripheral neuropathy. Patients should report this to the prescriber immediately as it may indicate a serious side effect that requires prompt intervention to prevent further nerve damage. A: Gastrointestinal upset is a common side effect of antitubercular drugs but is usually not considered serious enough to warrant immediate reporting. B: Headache and nervousness are not typically associated with antitubercular drugs. While they may occur as side effects, they are not the most concerning adverse effects. C: Reddish-orange urine and stool are common side effects of rifampin, an antitubercular drug, and are not typically harmful. This side effect is usually harmless and does not require immediate reporting.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because stimulation of liver microsomal enzymes can increase drug metabolism, leading to decreased drug levels in the body and requiring a dose increase to maintain therapeutic effect. This is known as enzyme induction. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because liver enzyme stimulation does not typically result in a decreased drug dose, prolonged drug action, or intensified unwanted drug reactions. It is crucial to understand how enzyme induction affects drug metabolism to optimize drug therapy.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Idiosyncrasy. Idiosyncrasy refers to a unique and unpredictable reaction to a drug that is not related to the dose or pharmacodynamic properties. This type of reaction can vary greatly among individuals and is not based on common drug responses. B: Hypersensitivity involves an exaggerated immune response to a drug and is dose-dependent. C: Tolerance is the decreased response to a drug over time with repeated use, not an unrelated reaction. D: Teratogenic action refers to drugs causing harm to a developing fetus, not an unrelated reaction in the patient.