ATI RN
foundation of nursing questions and answers Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient is scheduled to have an electronystagmography as part of a diagnostic workup for Mnires disease. What question is it most important for the nurse to ask the patient in preparation for this test?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Have you ever experienced claustrophobia or feelings of anxiety while in enclosed spaces? This question is important because electronystagmography involves the patient being placed in a confined space with sensors attached to monitor eye movements. Claustrophobia or anxiety can significantly impact the patient's ability to tolerate the test, affecting its accuracy. Choice B: Do you currently take any tranquilizers or stimulants on a regular basis? While relevant in some cases, it is not as crucial as ensuring the patient can tolerate the test environment. Choice C: Do you have a history of falls or problems with loss of balance? While relevant to Mnire's disease, it is not directly related to the preparation for electronystagmography. Choice D: Do you have a history of either high or low blood pressure? While monitoring blood pressure is important for some procedures, it is not a primary concern for electronystagmography.
Question 2 of 9
The hospice nurse is caring for a 45-year-old mother of three young children in the patients home. During the most recent visit, the nurse has observed that the patient has a new onset of altered mental status, likely resulting from recently diagnosed brain metastases. What goal of nursing interventions should the nurse identify?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. The goal of nursing interventions in this scenario is to teach family members how to interact with and ensure safety for the patient with impaired cognition. This is the most appropriate response because it addresses the immediate need to provide the patient with appropriate care and support in their home environment. By educating the family on how to interact with the patient and ensure their safety, the nurse can help maintain a sense of normalcy for the patient and promote their well-being. Choice A is incorrect because sedating the patient may not be the best approach without considering other interventions first. Choice B is incorrect as moving the patient to an acute-care facility may not be necessary or feasible at this time. Choice C is incorrect as it focuses on end-of-life care rather than addressing the immediate need of supporting the patient with altered mental status.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse is using therapeutic communication witha patient. Which technique will the nurse use to ensure effective communication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because therapeutic communication focuses on building a trusting relationship and understanding the patient's feelings and needs. By changing negative self-talk to positive self-talk, the nurse can help the patient develop a more positive outlook and improve self-esteem. This technique promotes effective communication by creating a supportive and non-judgmental environment. Option B is incorrect because small group communication is not the primary focus of therapeutic communication. Option C is incorrect as electronic communication lacks the personal interaction needed for therapeutic communication. Option D is incorrect because intrapersonal communication involves self-reflection and is not directly related to building strong teams in the context of patient care.
Question 4 of 9
A 6-month-old infant is brought to the ED by his parents for inconsolable crying and pulling at his right ear. When assessing this infant, the advanced practice nurse is aware that the tympanic membrane should be what color in a healthy ear?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pink. In a healthy ear, the tympanic membrane should appear pink due to the rich blood supply. This color indicates good vascularization and normal functioning of the ear. Yellowish-white (choice A), gray (choice C), and bluish-white (choice D) are incorrect because they do not reflect the normal color of a healthy tympanic membrane. Yellowish-white may indicate fluid behind the eardrum, gray may suggest infection or inflammation, and bluish-white could indicate poor blood flow or trauma. Therefore, the pink color of the tympanic membrane is the most appropriate and indicative of a healthy ear in this case.
Question 5 of 9
A patient who was pregnant had a spontaneous abortion at approximately 4 weeks’ gestation. At the time of the miscarriage, it was thought that all products of conception were expelled. Two weeks later, the patient presents at the clinic office complaining of “crampy” abdominal pain and a scant amount of serosanguineous vaginal drainage with a slight odor. The pregnancy test is negative. Vital signs reveal a temperature of 100F, with blood pressure of 100/60 mm Hg, irregular pulse 88 beats/minute (bpm), and respirations, 20 breaths per minute. Based on this assessment data, what does the nurse anticipate as a clinical diagnosis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Uterine infection. The patient's symptoms of crampy abdominal pain, scant serosanguineous vaginal drainage with odor, negative pregnancy test, and vital signs indicating fever, low blood pressure, and irregular pulse suggest an infection. The history of recent miscarriage raises suspicion for retained products of conception leading to infection. Ectopic pregnancy (choice A) would present with different symptoms such as abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, and positive pregnancy test. Gestational trophoblastic disease (choice C) typically presents with abnormal vaginal bleeding and high levels of hCG. Endometriosis (choice D) is a chronic condition and not related to the acute symptoms described. In summary, the clinical presentation aligns with uterine infection given the patient's history, symptoms, and vital signs.
Question 6 of 9
A 76-year-old with a diagnosis of penile cancer has been admitted to the medical floor. Because the incidence of penile cancer is so low, the staff educator has been asked to teach about penile cancer. What risk factors should the educator cite in this presentation? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Phimosis. Phimosis, the inability to retract the foreskin over the glans penis, is a significant risk factor for penile cancer. Phimosis can lead to poor hygiene, inflammation, and chronic irritation, increasing the risk of cancer development. The other choices (B: Priapism, C: Herpes simplex infection, D: Increasing age, E: Lack of circumcision) are not directly linked to penile cancer development. Priapism is prolonged and painful erection unrelated to penile cancer. Herpes simplex infection is a viral infection and not a primary risk factor for penile cancer. Increasing age is a general risk factor for many cancers, but it is not specific to penile cancer. Lack of circumcision has been associated with a slightly higher risk of penile cancer, but it is not as significant as phimosis.
Question 7 of 9
A patient newly diagnosed with breast cancer states that her physician suspects regional lymph node involvement and told her that there are signs of metastatic disease. The nurse learns that the patient has been diagnosed with stage IV breast cancer. What is an implication of this diagnosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer A: Stage IV breast cancer indicates distant metastasis, making the patient ineligible for curative surgery. Treatment for stage IV focuses on palliative care to manage symptoms and improve quality of life. Summary of Other Choices: B: Stage IV breast cancer is not considered highly treatable as it has spread beyond the breast and nearby lymph nodes, making it more challenging to cure. C: There is no evidence to suggest that stage IV breast cancer will self-resolve. The prognosis for metastatic breast cancer is typically poor. D: The 5-year survival rate for stage IV breast cancer is generally lower than 15%, making this choice incorrect.
Question 8 of 9
A nurse is a member of an interdisciplinary teamthat uses critical pathways. According to the critical pathway, on day 2 of the hospital stay, the patient should be sitting in the chair. It is day 3, and the patient cannot sit in the chair. What should the nurse do?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Document the variance in the patient’s record. By documenting the variance in the patient's record, the nurse can provide a clear record of the deviation from the critical pathway. This documentation is essential for tracking the patient's progress accurately and identifying potential issues that may require intervention. It allows for proper communication among the interdisciplinary team and ensures that everyone is aware of the deviation. Choice A is incorrect because adding data to the problem list may not provide a comprehensive record of the variance. Choice B is incorrect because focusing on charting using the DAR format does not address the deviation from the critical pathway. Choice D is incorrect because reporting a positive variance in the next team meeting may not accurately reflect the patient's actual progress and may lead to miscommunication within the team.
Question 9 of 9
Which factor is known to increase the risk of gestational diabetes mellitus?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Previous birth of large infant. This factor increases the risk of gestational diabetes mellitus due to a history of delivering a large baby, indicating a higher likelihood of insulin resistance in subsequent pregnancies. Maternal age younger than 25 years (B) is not a known risk factor for gestational diabetes. Being underweight prior to pregnancy (C) is actually associated with a decreased risk of gestational diabetes. A previous diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus (D) is a separate condition and does not directly increase the risk of gestational diabetes.