ATI RN
ATI Hematologic System Test Questions
Question 1 of 5
A patient is scheduled for upcoming surgery. He is on nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) for rheumatoid arthritis. You are being asked what to do with his medications for the surgery. What is the mechanism of action of NSAIDS?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: NSAIDs inhibit cyclooxygenase (COX) enzymes to reduce prostaglandin synthesis. Step 2: Reversible inhibition means the effect is temporary and can be reversed. Step 3: COX-1 inhibition leads to GI side effects, which can be concerning in surgery. Step 4: COX-2 inhibition is more targeted for inflammation but can still pose cardiovascular risks. Step 5: Reversible COX-1 inhibition allows for temporary discontinuation before surgery to minimize bleeding risk. Summary: Choice C is correct as reversible COX-1 inhibition allows for safer management pre-surgery compared to irreversible inhibition in choices A and B, and COX-2 inhibition in choice D.
Question 2 of 5
A leukemia investigator plans to obtain bone marrow under general anesthesia to measure minimal residual disease (MRD) and to see if this time point can predict early relapse. The specimen will be obtained at a time point when otherwise no bone marrow would be sampled. The results are not shared with the treating oncologist, and no therapeutic interventions are decided or based on the results. Which of the following statements is most accurate about this intervention?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: General anesthesia carries inherent risks, making the procedure more than minimal-risk. Step 2: The absence of therapeutic interventions based on results does not make the procedure low-risk. Step 3: Performing an additional procedure does not automatically make it minimal-risk. Step 4: Not sharing results with the treating oncologist may raise ethical concerns. Summary: Choice C is correct because the use of general anesthesia increases the risk level of the procedure, making it greater than minimal-risk. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not adequately address the specific risk associated with the use of general anesthesia in this scenario.
Question 3 of 5
A 7-year-old boy presents with recent onset of vomiting and lethargy. Blood smear shows increased neutrophils with a left shift and 8% abnormal cells. Bone marrow contains 60% of the same cells. Flow cytometry shows that the cells are TdT–, CD10+, CD19+, CD20+, sIg+. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Burkitt leukemia/lymphoma. The key features in the case are increased neutrophils with a left shift, presence of abnormal cells in blood and bone marrow, and flow cytometry showing TdT–, CD10+, CD19+, CD20+, sIg+. These findings are consistent with Burkitt leukemia/lymphoma, a highly aggressive B-cell neoplasm. The presence of CD10, CD19, and CD20, along with sIg positivity, points towards a B-cell origin. Additionally, the characteristic translocation t(8;14) involving c-Myc oncogene is commonly seen in Burkitt lymphoma. The absence of TdT expression rules out T-cell ALL (Choice C). Hematogones (Choice D) are normal precursor B-cells found in bone marrow, but they do not typically present with the clinical features described. B-cell ALL (Choice B) lacks the specific features seen in this case
Question 4 of 5
An infant is born with a firm mass over the chest with a central area of purpura and a 'halo' around it. An ultrasound reveals a high-flow lesion. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Congenital hemangioma. A congenital hemangioma presents as a firm mass with purpura and a 'halo' due to rapid growth of blood vessels. The central area of purpura indicates thrombosis. The high-flow lesion on ultrasound suggests an increased blood flow. Fibrosarcoma (A) is a malignant tumor of fibrous tissue and does not present with these characteristic features. Infantile hemangioma (B) typically appears after birth and has a different clinical presentation. Capillary malformation (D) is a vascular malformation that does not typically show the same features as described in the question.
Question 5 of 5
A study is designed to investigate the rates of central line–associated blood stream infections among pediatric hematology/oncology patients. Three common central line types (totally implanted catheter [port], peripherally inserted central catheter [PICC], and tunneled externalized catheter [TEC]) were included in the study. What data structure is central line type?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Nominal. The central line type is a categorical variable with no inherent order or ranking. Each type is distinct and cannot be quantitatively ordered or measured. It is not continuous (A), as it is not on a scale. It is not dichotomous (B) as there are more than two categories. It is not ordinal (D) because the types do not have a clear order or ranking. Therefore, central line type is best represented by a nominal data structure.