ATI RN
foundations of nursing test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient is scheduled for enucleation and the nurse is providing anticipatory guidance about postoperative care. What aspects of care should the nurse describe to the patient? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Application of topical antibiotic ointment. After enucleation, there is a risk of infection at the surgical site. By applying topical antibiotic ointment as directed, the patient can help prevent infection and promote healing. This is a crucial aspect of postoperative care. B: Maintenance of a supine position for the first 48 hours postoperative is incorrect. Patients may be advised to avoid lying flat on their back to prevent complications such as pressure on the surgical site. C: Fluid restriction to prevent orbital edema is incorrect. Fluid restriction is not typically necessary post-enucleation unless specifically advised by the healthcare provider. D: Administration of loop diuretics to prevent orbital edema is incorrect. Loop diuretics are not typically used for preventing orbital edema post-enucleation. E: Use of an ocular pressure dressing is incorrect. While dressings may be used postoperatively, the application of topical antibiotic ointment is more
Question 2 of 9
Which behaviors indicate the student nurse hasa good understanding of confidentiality and the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)? (Selectall that apply.)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Correct Answer: D Rationale: - Giving a change-of-shift report to the oncoming nurse about the patient is an appropriate action that maintains confidentiality by only sharing necessary patient information with authorized healthcare professionals. - A: Writing the patient’s room number and date of birth on a paper for school is a breach of confidentiality as it exposes sensitive patient information to unauthorized individuals. - B: Printing/copying material from the patient’s health record for a graded care plan is also a breach of confidentiality as it involves sharing patient information without proper authorization. - C: Reviewing assigned patient’s record and another unassigned patient’s record is a violation of HIPAA as it involves accessing patient information that is not necessary for the nurse's duties, risking unauthorized disclosure.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse is reviewing the physicians notes from the patient who has just left the clinic. The nurse learns that the physician suspects a malignant breast tumor. On palpation, the mass most likely had what characteristic?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Mobility. A malignant breast tumor typically lacks mobility due to its fixed attachment to surrounding tissues. This characteristic is concerning for malignancy as it suggests invasive growth. Incorrect answers: A: Nontenderness - Tenderness does not reliably indicate malignancy or benignancy. B: A size of 5 mm - Tumor size alone does not determine malignancy. C: Softness and a regular shape - Malignant tumors are often firm and irregular in shape.
Question 4 of 9
A high-risk labor patient progresses from preeclampsia to eclampsia. Aggressive management is instituted, and the fetus is delivered via cesarean birth. Which finding in the immediate postoperative period indicates that the patient is at risk of developing HELLP syndrome?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Platelet count of 50,000/mcL. HELLP syndrome is a severe form of preeclampsia characterized by Hemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, and Low Platelet count. In this scenario, a platelet count of 50,000/mcL indicates thrombocytopenia, which is a key component of HELLP syndrome. Low platelet count can lead to bleeding complications and is a critical indicator of the syndrome. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. B: Liver enzyme levels within normal range do not necessarily indicate the presence of HELLP syndrome, as elevated liver enzymes are a hallmark feature of the syndrome. C: Being negative for edema is not a reliable indicator of HELLP syndrome, as edema is a common finding in preeclampsia but not specific to HELLP syndrome. D: No evidence of nausea or vomiting is not a specific sign of HELLP syndrome, as these
Question 5 of 9
The organization of a patients care on the palliative care unit is based on interdisciplinary collaboration. How does interdisciplinary collaboration differ from multidisciplinary practice?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Interdisciplinary collaboration involves clinicians from different backgrounds integrating their separate plans of care, ensuring a holistic approach to patient care. This fosters a comprehensive understanding of the patient's needs and individualized care. In contrast, multidisciplinary practice involves clinicians working independently without integrating their plans, potentially leading to fragmented care. Choice A is incorrect as interdisciplinary collaboration does have a team leader to coordinate and facilitate communication among team members. Choice C is incorrect because while communication and cooperation are essential in interdisciplinary collaboration, the key distinction is the integration of different perspectives and plans of care. Choice D is incorrect as interdisciplinary collaboration goes beyond just medical expertise and patient preference, involving professionals from various disciplines working together to address all aspects of patient care.
Question 6 of 9
A patient newly diagnosed with cancer is scheduled to begin chemotherapy treatment and the nurse is providing anticipatory guidance about potential adverse effects. When addressing the most common adverse effect, what should the nurse describe?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Nausea and vomiting. Chemotherapy commonly causes gastrointestinal side effects, such as nausea and vomiting, due to its impact on rapidly dividing cells in the digestive tract. This adverse effect can significantly impact a patient's quality of life and adherence to treatment. Pruritis (A), itching, is less common and usually not a primary side effect of chemotherapy. Altered glucose metabolism (C) is a potential effect of some chemotherapeutic agents but is not the most common adverse effect. Confusion (D) is not typically associated with chemotherapy and is more commonly seen with other medications or medical conditions.
Question 7 of 9
To decrease glandular cellular activity and prostate size, an 83-year-old patient has been prescribed finasteride (Proscar). When performing patient education with this patient, the nurse should be sure to tell the patient what?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Finasteride is a medication that works by decreasing glandular cellular activity and reducing prostate size. Step 2: Dietary supplements can interact with finasteride, potentially affecting its effectiveness or causing adverse effects. Step 3: Reporting the planned use of dietary supplements to the physician ensures proper monitoring and adjustment of the treatment plan. Step 4: This communication promotes patient safety and optimal therapeutic outcomes. Therefore, choice A is correct as it emphasizes the importance of informing the physician about dietary supplement use to ensure the efficacy and safety of finasteride. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the mechanism of action or specific considerations of finasteride therapy.
Question 8 of 9
A 58-year-old male patient has been hospitalized for a wedge resection of the left lower lung lobe after a routine chest x-ray shows carcinoma. The patient is anxious and asks if he can smoke. Which statement by the nurse would be most therapeutic?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: "You are anxious about the surgery. Do you see smoking as helping?" This response acknowledges the patient's anxiety and invites him to explore his reasons for wanting to smoke, opening up a dialogue and potentially uncovering underlying issues. It also avoids judgment or direct orders, fostering a therapeutic nurse-patient relationship. Explanation of why the other choices are incorrect: A: "Smoking is the reason you are here." - This response is blaming and may increase the patient's guilt or anxiety, hindering effective communication. B: "The doctor left orders for you not to smoke." - This response is authoritative and may lead to resistance or defensiveness from the patient, rather than addressing his concerns. D: "Smoking is OK right now, but after your surgery it is contraindicated." - This response is unclear and may send mixed messages to the patient, potentially leading to confusion or misunderstanding.
Question 9 of 9
A patient with mastoiditis is admitted to the post-surgical unit after undergoing a radical mastoidectomy. The nurse should identify what priority of postoperative care?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Assessing for mouth droop and decreased lateral eye gaze. After a radical mastoidectomy, the nurse should prioritize assessing for signs of facial nerve damage, such as mouth droop and decreased lateral eye gaze, which can indicate injury to the facial nerve during surgery. This is crucial as immediate intervention may be needed to prevent long-term complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect: B: Assessing for increased middle ear pressure and perforated ear drum is not the priority postoperative care for a radical mastoidectomy patient. C: Assessing for gradual onset of conductive hearing loss and nystagmus is not the priority as these are not immediate concerns postoperatively. D: Assessing for scar tissue and cerumen obstructing the auditory canal is not the priority as these are not immediate postoperative complications that require urgent attention.