ATI RN
Foundations and Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient is reluctant to undergo a recommended procedure due to fear of pain. What is the nurse's best approach to address this fear?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The nurse's best approach to address the patient's fear of pain is to provide accurate information about pain management strategies and options. In doing so, the nurse can help alleviate the patient's concerns by empowering them with knowledge and potential solutions for managing pain during and after the procedure. By acknowledging the patient's fear and addressing it with practical information, the nurse can build trust, reduce anxiety, and create a more supportive and collaborative environment for the patient. Dismissing, ignoring, or invalidating the patient's fear would not be effective in addressing the underlying concerns and could potentially lead to increased distress and resistance to the recommended procedure.
Question 2 of 9
Which assessment finding would lead the nurse to suspect a postpartum hemorrhage? Blood loss of _____.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Postpartum hemorrhage is defined as a blood loss of more than 500 ml within the first 24 hours after vaginal delivery or more than 1000 ml following a cesarean delivery. Excessive bleeding can lead to hypovolemic shock and can be life-threatening if not promptly addressed. Therefore, a blood loss of more than 500 ml/24 hours would lead the nurse to suspect a postpartum hemorrhage and prompt further assessment and intervention.
Question 3 of 9
A patient presents with gradual, painless visual field loss in both eyes, particularly in the peripheral vision. Tonometry reveals elevated intraocular pressure (IOP). Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The patient presents with gradual, painless visual field loss in both eyes, particularly in the peripheral vision, which is characteristic of glaucoma. The elevated intraocular pressure (IOP) on tonometry further supports a diagnosis of glaucoma. Open-angle glaucoma is the most common type of glaucoma and typically presents insidiously with a slow progression of vision loss. In open-angle glaucoma, the drainage angle of the eye remains open but becomes less efficient over time, leading to increased intraocular pressure and optic nerve damage. This results in peripheral visual field loss. Closed-angle glaucoma, on the other hand, presents more acutely with sudden eye pain, redness, and blurred vision due to a sudden increase in intraocular pressure from a blocked drainage angle. Age-related macular degeneration and diabetic retinopathy typically do not present with elevated IOP or peripheral visual field loss.
Question 4 of 9
No drugs cure this condition. Emphasis is put on delaying the onset of severe symptoms. Which of the following does NOT help improve Alzheimer's?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Smoking is a harmful habit that is known to contribute to a variety of health problems, including heart disease, lung disease, and cancer. Smoking does not provide any benefits for Alzheimer's patients and, in fact, can worsen the condition due to its negative impact on overall health. Therefore, smoking does not help improve Alzheimer's and may exacerbate the symptoms and complications associated with the disease.
Question 5 of 9
A patient is admitted with a suspected myocardial infarction. Which cardiac biomarker is most specific for myocardial injury?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Troponin is the most specific cardiac biomarker for myocardial injury. Troponin I and Troponin T are proteins released into the bloodstream when there is damage to the heart muscle, making them highly indicative of myocardial infarction. Troponin levels rise within a few hours of cardiac injury, peak within 24-48 hours, and can remain elevated for up to 2 weeks. Troponin is considered the gold standard biomarker for the diagnosis of acute myocardial infarction due to its high specificity and sensitivity for cardiac injury. In contrast, Creatine kinase-MB (CK-MB) and myoglobin are also used in diagnosing myocardial infarction but are less specific than troponin. Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) is primarily used in heart failure diagnosis and management, and its levels are not specific to myocardial injury.
Question 6 of 9
The __________ is link between the nervous system and the endocrine system
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The hypothalamus is the link between the nervous system and the endocrine system. It plays a crucial role in maintaining homeostasis in the body by communicating with the pituitary gland, which is often referred to as the "master gland" of the endocrine system. The hypothalamus produces hormones that regulate the release of hormones from the pituitary gland, which then controls the functions of other endocrine glands throughout the body. This connection allows the nervous system to influence and coordinate various hormonal responses in the body, helping to regulate processes such as metabolism, growth, stress responses, and reproduction.
Question 7 of 9
A patient with a history of Hodgkin lymphoma presents with fever, chills, and generalized malaise. Laboratory tests reveal pancytopenia, circulating Reed-Sternberg cells, and bone marrow involvement. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause these findings?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The patient is presenting with symptoms and laboratory findings consistent with a paraneoplastic syndrome related to Hodgkin lymphoma. In this case, the fever, chills, generalized malaise, pancytopenia, circulating Reed-Sternberg cells, and bone marrow involvement are all indicative of a paraneoplastic syndrome associated with Hodgkin lymphoma. Paraneoplastic syndromes are a group of disorders that are triggered by an abnormal immune response to a neoplasm, such as Hodgkin lymphoma, leading to various systemic manifestations.
Question 8 of 9
A patient presents with a thyroid nodule and signs of compression such as difficulty swallowing and breathing. Fine-needle aspiration biopsy reveals malignant cells with nuclear features suggestive of papillary thyroid carcinoma. Which endocrine disorder is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Papillary thyroid carcinoma is a type of thyroid cancer that arises from follicular cells of the thyroid gland. It often presents as a thyroid nodule that can cause symptoms of compression due to its enlarging size. The compression symptoms, such as difficulty swallowing and breathing in this case, occur when the thyroid nodule becomes large enough to press on adjacent structures in the neck. Fine-needle aspiration biopsy can confirm the presence of malignant cells with nuclear features typical of papillary thyroid carcinoma, further supporting the diagnosis.
Question 9 of 9
A patient presents with fever, chills, headache, and myalgia after returning from a trip to sub-Saharan Africa. Laboratory tests reveal intraerythrocytic ring forms and trophozoites on blood smear examination. Which of the following is the most likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The clinical presentation of fever, chills, headache, and myalgia following a trip to sub-Saharan Africa is highly suggestive of malaria, which is caused by the Plasmodium species. Specifically, the presence of intraerythrocytic ring forms and trophozoites on blood smear examination points towards Plasmodium falciparum as the most likely causative agent.