ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
A patient is receiving intravenous amphotericin. Which of the following assessments warrants the discontinuation of the antifungal agent?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Intravenous amphotericin can cause nephrotoxicity, leading to increased blood urea nitrogen levels. Elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) indicates impaired renal function, which is a known adverse effect of amphotericin. Therefore, a BUN level of 60 mg/dL warrants the discontinuation of the antifungal agent. The other options, such as a sodium level of 138 mEq/L, hematocrit of 39%, and AST level of 10 Unit/L, are within normal ranges and not indicative of the need to discontinue amphotericin therapy.
Question 2 of 5
In Guillain-Barre syndrome, what pathophysiologic process underlies the deficits that accompany the degeneration of myelin in the peripheral nervous system (PNS)?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In Guillain-Barre syndrome, the destruction of myelin leads to axonal damage. If remyelination does not occur, the axon will eventually degenerate and die, impacting nerve function. Choice A is incorrect because the destruction of myelin does not affect Schwann cell production. Choice B is incorrect as the lack of myelin directly affects the conduction of nerve impulses, not the axonal transport system. Choice D is incorrect as a deficit of myelin does not predispose the client to infections by potential pathogens.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse practitioner is seeing a client in the clinic with a suspected diagnosis of bacterial meningitis. What should the nurse anticipate as the priority action?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer the first dose of antibiotics immediately after blood cultures are drawn for suspected bacterial meningitis. This is crucial to initiate treatment promptly and improve patient outcomes. Starting an IV line and administering corticosteroids (Choice B) may be part of the treatment plan but administering antibiotics is the priority. Isolating the client (Choice C) is important to prevent the spread of infection but not the priority over initiating antibiotic therapy. Performing a lumbar puncture (Choice D) may confirm the diagnosis, but treatment should not be delayed for this step in suspected cases of bacterial meningitis.
Question 4 of 5
A 70-year-old client presents with weakness and sensory loss in the right hand and foot. The client also exhibits speech difficulties. Which condition is the client most likely experiencing?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Cerebral infarction (stroke). In this case, the client's symptoms of weakness and sensory loss in the right hand and foot, along with speech difficulties, are indicative of a stroke. These symptoms are commonly seen in individuals experiencing a cerebral infarction, where a blockage in blood flow to the brain leads to neurological deficits. Choices A, B, and D are less likely as transient ischemic attacks (TIAs) typically have temporary symptoms with no permanent damage, brain tumors may present with a different set of symptoms depending on their location, and multiple sclerosis usually presents with a relapsing-remitting pattern of neurological symptoms rather than sudden onset unilateral deficits.
Question 5 of 5
A client with chronic bronchitis is receiving education from a healthcare provider about the condition. Which statement made by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because limiting fluid intake is not recommended for chronic bronchitis. Hydration is essential as it helps thin mucus, making it easier to clear from the airways. Choices A, B, and D are all correct statements for managing chronic bronchitis. Avoiding exposure to smoke, pollutants, and irritants can help reduce respiratory symptoms and exacerbations. Using the inhaler regularly, even in the absence of symptoms, is crucial for controlling inflammation and maintaining airway function.