ATI RN
Introduction to Professional Nursing Questions
Question 1 of 5
A patient is receiving heparin therapy as part of the treatment for a pulmonary embolism. The nurse monitors the results of which laboratory test to check the drug‘s effectiveness?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). This test is used to monitor heparin therapy as it measures the effectiveness of the drug in prolonging clotting time. By monitoring aPTT levels, the nurse can ensure that the patient is within the therapeutic range to prevent clot formation without increasing the risk of bleeding. A: Bleeding times do not specifically monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy and can be affected by various factors. C: Prothrombin time/international normalized ratio (PT/INR) is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. D: Vitamin K levels are not directly related to heparin therapy and are more relevant in monitoring patients on warfarin therapy.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse obtains a health history from an older adult with a prosthetic mitral valve who has symptoms of infective endocarditis (IE). Which question by the nurse helps identify a risk factor for IE?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: "Have you had dental work done recently?" This question helps identify a risk factor for infective endocarditis (IE) as dental procedures can introduce bacteria into the bloodstream, potentially leading to IE in individuals with prosthetic heart valves. Dental work is a known risk factor for IE due to the transient bacteremia that can occur during dental procedures, especially in those with prosthetic heart valves. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the risk factors for IE in this specific scenario. Asking about a history of heart attack (A) is not directly related to IE risk factors. Family history of endocarditis (B) may have some relevance, but it is not as directly linked to the current situation as dental work. Recent immunizations (C) are important for overall health but not a specific risk factor for IE in this case.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse teaches a client who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. Which statements related to nutrition would the nurse include in this client’s teaching? (Select all that do not apply.)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because eating high-fiber foods may lead to bloating and increased gas, which can exacerbate symptoms of COPD. Step 1: High-fiber foods can be difficult to digest, causing discomfort for COPD patients. Step 2: This can lead to increased abdominal pressure, making breathing more challenging for those with COPD. Step 3: Therefore, it is important for COPD patients to avoid high-fiber foods to prevent worsening of symptoms. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they are all appropriate recommendations for a client with COPD to promote optimal nutrition and manage symptoms.
Question 4 of 5
A patient with bacterial pneumonia has coarse crackles and thick sputum. Which action should the nurse plan to promote airway clearance?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Help the patient to splint the chest when coughing. This action supports the patient in effectively clearing thick sputum by providing external support to the chest wall during the coughing effort. Splinting the chest can help increase the force of the cough and improve the effectiveness of clearing secretions. A: Restricting oral fluids during the day is incorrect as hydration is important in thinning sputum and promoting airway clearance. B: Encouraging pursed-lip breathing technique is helpful for some respiratory conditions, but it may not be as effective in promoting airway clearance in this case. D: Encouraging the patient to wear the nasal O2 cannula is important for oxygenation but does not directly address airway clearance.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who has suffered a nasal fracture. Which assessment would the nurse perform first?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Airway patency. Assessing airway patency is the priority in a client with a nasal fracture to ensure adequate oxygenation. If the airway is compromised, it poses a life-threatening risk and requires immediate intervention. Ensuring airway patency takes precedence over assessing facial pain, vital signs, or bone displacement, as these can be addressed once the airway is secured. Assessing vital signs may be important, but airway patency is the most critical initial assessment in this situation. Bone displacement and facial pain assessments are important but secondary to ensuring the client's ability to breathe effectively.