ATI RN
ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 1 Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient is receiving discharge instructions for GERD. Which of the following statements by the patient demonstrates an understanding of the teaching?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Patients with GERD should avoid activities that increase intra-abdominal pressure, such as bending at the waist, as this can lead to reflux. Choice A is incorrect because medications for GERD are usually taken with water, not citrus juices. Choice B is incorrect as having a bedtime snack can worsen GERD symptoms. Choice C is incorrect because lying down after meals can also exacerbate reflux due to the effects of gravity.
Question 2 of 9
A client is being taught about fecal occult blood testing (FOBT) for colorectal cancer screening. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the nurse should advise the client to avoid corticosteroids, anti-inflammatory medications, and vitamin C before fecal occult blood testing to prevent false-positive results. Choice A is incorrect as stool samples for FOBT are usually collected using a kit at home. Choice B is incorrect because stimulant laxatives are not typically used before FOBT. Choice C is incorrect as guidelines recommend starting colorectal cancer screening at the age of 50, not 40.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client following a heart transplant. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Shortness of breath is an important sign of transplant rejection. Other manifestations of rejection include fatigue, edema, bradycardia, and hypotension. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because: A) Immunosuppressant medications are typically required for life, not just up to 1 year. C) The surgical site healing time can vary and may take longer than 3 to 4 weeks. D) Starting a specific exercise regimen should be individualized and guided by healthcare providers; a general recommendation like 45 minutes of exercise per day may not be suitable for all heart transplant recipients.
Question 4 of 9
A client with MĩniĬre's disease is experiencing episodes of vertigo. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with MĩniĬre's disease experiencing vertigo is to provide a low sodium diet. This helps reduce fluid retention, which can alleviate the symptoms of MĩniĬre's disease. Maintaining strict bed rest is not necessary and can lead to deconditioning. Restricting fluid intake to the morning hours does not specifically address the underlying cause of MĩniĬre's disease. Administering aspirin is not indicated for MĩniĬre's disease and can potentially worsen symptoms.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse is caring for a client who has a new diagnosis of tuberculosis. Which of the following precautions should the nurse initiate to prevent transmission of the disease?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Tuberculosis is spread through small droplets measuring less than 5 microns, which can remain airborne for extended periods. The nurse should place a client who has TB under airborne precautions to prevent the spread of microbes. Choice A, contact precautions, are used for diseases spread by direct or indirect contact. Choice C, droplet precautions, are for diseases spread by larger droplets. Choice D, protective environment, is used for immunocompromised clients to protect them from environmental pathogens.
Question 6 of 9
A nurse is admitting a client who has suspected appendicitis. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider immediately?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A distended, board-like abdomen should be reported to the provider immediately because it indicates peritonitis, a serious complication of appendicitis resulting from a ruptured appendix. Option B, an elevated WBC count, may indicate infection but is not as urgent as a board-like abdomen. Option C, rebound tenderness over McBurney's point, is a classic sign of appendicitis but does not indicate immediate life-threatening complications. Option D, a slightly elevated temperature, is not as concerning as a distended, board-like abdomen.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse in a rural community center is providing education to a group of clients about first aid interventions for snake bites. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to immobilize the affected extremity with a splint. This helps to slow the spread of venom by limiting movement. Applying an ice pack directly to the affected area (Choice A) is not recommended for snake bites as it could exacerbate tissue damage. Placing a tourniquet above and below the affected area (Choice C) is also not advised as it can lead to further complications. Elevating the affected extremity (Choice D) is not recommended for snake bites; keeping it below the level of the heart is more appropriate to reduce venom spread.
Question 8 of 9
A healthcare provider is assessing a client who reports a possible exposure to HIV. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider identify as an early manifestation of HIV infection?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'B: Fatigue.' Early manifestations of HIV infection often include symptoms like fatigue, fever, and rash, which are typical of viral infections. Stomatitis (choice A) refers to inflammation of the mouth and lips, which can occur in HIV but is not specific to early infection. Wasting syndrome (choice C) and lipodystrophy (choice D) are more commonly associated with later stages of HIV infection rather than early manifestations.
Question 9 of 9
A nurse is caring for a client who has syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) and is receiving 3% sodium chloride via continuous IV. Which of the following laboratory findings should the nurse identify as an indication that the SIADH is resolving?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A urine specific gravity of 1.020 is within the expected reference range and indicates that the kidneys are appropriately concentrating urine, which is a sign that the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is resolving. A low sodium level (choice B) is associated with SIADH, so a sodium level of 119 mEq/L is not indicative of resolution. BUN (choice C) and calcium levels (choice D) are typically not directly related to SIADH resolution.