ATI RN
Pharmacology ATI Proctored Exam 2024 Questions
Question 1 of 5
A patient is receiving 10 mEq of potassium chloride in 100 mL of normal saline intravenously (IV) to infuse over 1 hour via infusion pump. The patient has a 22-gauge peripheral IV in his right forearm and reports pain at the insertion site; the nurse notes that the site is reddened, warm, and tender to the touch. Which action would the nurse take?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The patient's symptoms of pain, redness, warmth, and tenderness at the IV site indicate possible infiltration or phlebitis, which can lead to tissue damage or infection. The nurse should stop the infusion and discontinue the IV immediately to prevent further complications. Aspirating and slowing the rate (A) is inappropriate in this situation. Inserting a central line (B) is not the immediate priority. Applying warm compresses (D) may be done after discontinuing the IV, but it is not the first action.
Question 2 of 5
A 35-year-old African American male in the military is hospitalized with an MRSA skin infection. The patient starts treatment with an antibiotic and becomes anemic and jaundiced. On peripheral blood smear, Heinz bodies are seen within red blood cells. What is the mechanism of action of the antibiotic given to this patient?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: MRSA treatment causing anemia, jaundice, and Heinz bodies suggests dapsone (sulfa drug), which inhibits folic acid metabolism . Oxidative stress from dapsone in G6PD-deficient patients (common in African Americans) leads to hemolysis. Options and are macrolide and tetracycline mechanisms. Option is penicillin's action. RNA polymerase inhibition (E) is rifampin's. Dapsone's sulfa action fits the clinical picture, with hemolysis as a side effect, not its primary MRSA mechanism, but the question's focus on outcome aligns with folate pathway disruption.
Question 3 of 5
Drug absorption following oral administration:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Most drugs are absorbed through passive diffusion across the gastrointestinal tract, following a concentration gradient, especially non-ionized forms.
Question 4 of 5
A 52-year-old man has had several focal complex partial seizures over the last year. Which one of the following therapies would be the most appropriate initial therapy for this patient?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Levetiracetam treats focal complex partial seizures by modulating synaptic vesicle protein SV2A, reducing excitability with broad efficacy, good tolerability, and minimal interactions, making it an appropriate initial therapy. Ethosuximide targets absence seizures, not focal. Diazepam manages acute seizures, not maintenance. Carbamazepine plus primidone is excessive; carbamazepine alone controls focal seizures via sodium channel blockade but has more interactions. Watchful waiting risks progression. Levetiracetam's profile, per guidelines, suits this patient as a first-line choice.
Question 5 of 5
Dr. Rodriguez orders 250 milliliters of packed red blood cells (RBC) for a patient. This therapy is administered for the treatment of:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Packed red blood cells (RBCs) are used to treat anemia, a condition characterized by a low red blood cell count or hemoglobin level. Anemia can result from blood loss, chronic disease, or nutritional deficiencies. Thrombocytopenia and leukopenia involve low platelet and white blood cell counts, respectively, and are not treated with RBC transfusions. Hypoalbuminemia involves low albumin levels and requires albumin infusions, not RBCs. Therefore, anemia is the correct indication for this therapy.