ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Final Exam Questions
Question 1 of 5
A patient is prescribed zanamivir (Relenza) to treat influenza B. The patient has a history of asthma. For which of the following symptoms should the nurse assess?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bronchospasm. Zanamivir (Relenza) is an inhaled medication used to treat influenza by reducing the severity and duration of symptoms. Patients with a history of asthma are at risk of bronchospasm as a potential side effect of zanamivir. Assessing for bronchospasm is crucial in this case to ensure the patient's safety and well-being. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Bradycardia, pneumonia, and pulmonary embolism are not commonly associated with zanamivir use in the treatment of influenza B, especially in a patient with a history of asthma.
Question 2 of 5
A teacher in a preschool is diagnosed with giardiasis. Which of the following medications will be administered to treat the diarrhea and abdominal distention?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Metronidazole (Flagyl) is the drug of choice for treating giardiasis, which is a common cause of diarrhea and abdominal distention. Sulfasalazine (Choice A) is used to treat inflammatory bowel disease. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Choice C) is commonly used for urinary tract infections and Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia. Doxycycline (Choice D) is commonly used to treat various bacterial infections but is not the first-line treatment for giardiasis.
Question 3 of 5
A patient has suffered from several infections in the last 6 months and unexplained impaired wound healing. What assessment should the nurse prioritize?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the patient's history of multiple infections and impaired wound healing indicates a potential issue with their immune system and overall health. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize assessing for nutritional deficiencies. Proper nutrition is essential for a healthy immune response and wound healing. Assessing for pain (choice A) may be important but addressing the root cause of the recurrent infections and impaired wound healing is crucial. Genetic tendency for infection (choice C) would be a less immediate concern compared to assessing for nutritional deficiencies. Edema and decreased hemoglobin (choice D) are not the most relevant assessments based on the patient's symptoms.
Question 4 of 5
During a flu shot clinic, one of the questions the student nurse asks relates to whether the client has a history of Guillain-Barr© syndrome. The client asks, 'What is that?' How should the nursing student reply?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because Guillain-Barr© syndrome is an acute immune-mediated polyneuropathy that can lead to paralysis affecting movement on both sides of the body, and in severe cases, involving the respiratory muscles. Choice B is incorrect as it describes local swelling, not the systemic effects of Guillain-Barr© syndrome. Choice C is incorrect as it describes a degenerative disease affecting mobility, not an acute immune-mediated condition like Guillain-Barr© syndrome. Choice D is incorrect as it describes flu-like symptoms following a flu shot, which is not the same as Guillain-Barr© syndrome.
Question 5 of 5
A client with a history of chronic alcoholism presents to the emergency department with a complaint of double vision. Which cranial nerve is most likely involved?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is Cranial nerve VI (Abducens). Chronic alcoholism can lead to damage to the abducens nerve, which controls the lateral movement of the eye. This damage can result in symptoms like double vision. Cranial nerve I (Olfactory) is responsible for the sense of smell and is not related to eye movement. Cranial nerve III (Oculomotor) controls most of the eye movements but is less likely to be affected in chronic alcoholism than the abducens nerve. Cranial nerve VII (Facial) is responsible for facial movements and is not associated with double vision.