ATI RN
Hematological System Questions
Question 1 of 5
A patient is prescribed to receive 2 units of packed red blood cells. What approach should the nurse use to ensure that the correct blood will be provided to this patient?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct Answer: C Rationale: 1. Following the organization's verification process ensures accuracy in blood transfusion. 2. This process involves multiple checks to confirm the correct blood for the patient. 3. Checking the patient's arm band (A) and medical record order (B) are initial steps but may not guarantee accuracy. 4. Assuming correct blood was provided (D) is risky and can lead to serious consequences.
Question 2 of 5
A patient has a platelet count of 75,000 /mm³. What action should the nurse take to support this patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct action is to restrict blood draws. With a platelet count of 75,000 /mm³, the patient is at risk for bleeding due to thrombocytopenia. Restricting blood draws helps minimize the risk of bleeding from puncture sites. Placing the patient in protective isolation (B) is unnecessary for low platelet count. Wearing a mask (C) is not directly related to platelet count. Documenting rectal temperatures (D) is not a priority when managing thrombocytopenia.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse assesses a patient with pernicious anemia. Which assessment finding would the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Numbness of the extremities. Pernicious anemia is caused by a lack of intrinsic factor, leading to vitamin B12 deficiency. This deficiency can result in neurological symptoms such as numbness and tingling in the extremities. Yellow-tinged sclerae (A) are more indicative of jaundice. A shiny smooth tongue (B) is a characteristic finding in glossitis, not specific to pernicious anemia. Gum bleeding and tenderness (D) are more commonly associated with periodontal disease rather than pernicious anemia.
Question 4 of 5
A client is receiving rivaroxaban (Xarelto) and asks the nurse to explain how it works. What response by the nurse is best?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: It inhibits thrombin. Rivaroxaban is a direct factor Xa inhibitor that works by inhibiting thrombin formation, thus preventing blood clots. Thrombin is a key enzyme in the coagulation cascade. Choices B and D are incorrect because rivaroxaban specifically targets factor Xa and not fibrinogen or vitamin K. Choice C is incorrect as rivaroxaban does not actually "thin" the blood; it works by preventing clot formation.
Question 5 of 5
A client is having a bone marrow biopsy and is extremely anxious. What action by the nurse is best?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Assess client fears and coping mechanisms. This is the best action because it allows the nurse to understand the specific concerns and anxieties of the client, enabling personalized support and interventions. It shows empathy and provides a tailored approach to address the client's needs. Summary: - Choice B: Reassuring the client is helpful but may not address the root of the anxiety. - Choice C: Sedating the client may not be necessary if underlying concerns are addressed. - Choice D: Providing false information about being asleep is not ethical and can lead to distrust.