ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam Questions
Question 1 of 5
A patient is prescribed testosterone gel for hypogonadism. What important instruction should the nurse provide regarding the application of this medication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to apply the testosterone gel to the chest or upper arms. This is recommended to minimize the risk of unintentional transfer of the medication to others, especially women and children, through skin contact. Applying the gel to the face, neck, or genitals is not advised as it can lead to unintended exposure to others. Additionally, applying the gel to the scalp or back is not appropriate as these areas are not indicated for absorption of testosterone.
Question 2 of 5
When starting on oral contraceptives, what should the nurse emphasize about the potential interactions with other medications?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Oral contraceptives can be less effective when taken with certain antibiotics, so patients should be informed about the potential need for additional contraception. Choice B is incorrect because taking oral contraceptives with food does not affect their effectiveness. Choice C is incorrect because oral contraceptives may take some time to become fully effective. Choice D is incorrect because oral contraceptives can interact with other medications, especially certain antibiotics, affecting their efficacy.
Question 3 of 5
A patient is being treated with amphotericin B. Which of the following statements indicates that the patient has understood the patient teaching?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'The medication may cause kidney damage.' Amphotericin B is known for its potential to cause nephrotoxicity, which can manifest as kidney damage. It is crucial for the patient to be aware of this possible adverse effect. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because amphotericin B is not typically associated with causing diabetes, liver necrosis, or pancreatitis. Therefore, these statements do not reflect an accurate understanding of the medication's side effects.
Question 4 of 5
Which of the following wounds is most likely to heal by secondary intention?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A stage IV pressure ulcer is a deep wound involving tissue loss that typically heals by secondary intention. This process involves the wound healing from the bottom up with granulation tissue and often results in significant scarring. Choice A, a finger laceration, would generally heal by primary intention due to its clean edges and minimal tissue loss. Choice C, a needlestick injury, is likely to be sutured and heal by primary intention since it is a small, clean wound. Choice D, an incision from an open appendectomy, is usually closed with sutures and heals by primary intention as well.
Question 5 of 5
A patient being treated for tuberculosis is determined to be drug resistant. Which of the following medications will the patient be resistant to in the treatment of tuberculosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In the treatment of tuberculosis, drug resistance commonly develops against medications like Isoniazid (INH) and rifampin. These two drugs are key components of the standard anti-tuberculosis treatment regimen. Choices B, C, and D are unrelated medications that are not used in the treatment of tuberculosis. Carbamazepine and phenytoin are anticonvulsants, dextroamphetamine is a stimulant, and propranolol and sotalol are used for cardiovascular conditions.
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