ATI RN
WGU Pathophysiology Final Exam Questions
Question 1 of 5
A patient is prescribed finasteride (Proscar) for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). What outcome should the nurse expect to observe?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased urinary frequency and urgency. Finasteride is expected to decrease urinary frequency and urgency in patients with BPH by reducing prostate size. It works by inhibiting the enzyme that converts testosterone to dihydrotestosterone, which helps shrink the prostate gland. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Finasteride does not increase prostate size, blood pressure, or the risk of kidney stones.
Question 2 of 5
What is the main function of the mitochondria in a cell?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: To produce energy in the form of ATP. Mitochondria are known as the powerhouse of the cell because they are responsible for producing energy in the form of ATP through a process called cellular respiration. This energy is essential for various cellular activities. Choice B is incorrect because protein synthesis primarily occurs in the ribosomes. Choice C is incorrect as the genetic information is stored in the cell's nucleus. Choice D is incorrect as the regulation of cell growth involves various other organelles and processes within the cell.
Question 3 of 5
What long-term risks should the nurse discuss with a patient starting on hormone replacement therapy (HRT)?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. When starting on hormone replacement therapy (HRT), the nurse should discuss the increased risks of cardiovascular events and breast cancer with the patient. These risks are important to consider to make an informed decision. Choice B is incorrect as HRT does not increase the risk of osteoporosis; in fact, it may help prevent it. Choice C is incorrect as while HRT can increase the risk of venous thromboembolism, regular screening is not the primary focus for discussion. Choice D is incorrect as HRT does not decrease the risk of fractures and is not primarily associated with an increased risk of developing diabetes.
Question 4 of 5
A newborn is diagnosed with congenital intrinsic factor deficiency. Which of the following types of anemia will the nurse see documented on the chart?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Pernicious anemia. Pernicious anemia is associated with a congenital intrinsic factor deficiency, leading to the impaired absorption of vitamin B12. Iron deficiency anemia (Choice A) is not directly related to intrinsic factor deficiency. Sideroblastic anemia (Choice B) is characterized by defective iron uptake by developing erythrocytes and is not linked to intrinsic factor deficiency. Hemolytic anemia (Choice D) involves the premature destruction of red blood cells and is not specifically associated with intrinsic factor deficiency.
Question 5 of 5
A patient began antiretroviral therapy several weeks ago for the treatment of HIV, and he has now presented to the clinic for a scheduled follow-up appointment. He states to the nurse, "I've been pretty good about taking all my pills on time, though it was a bit hit and miss over the holiday weekend." How should the nurse best respond to this patient's statement?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct response is to remind the patient that antiretroviral drugs are most effective when taken consistently and as prescribed. Choice A is incorrect because taking a double dose after missing a dose is not recommended, as it can lead to medication toxicity. Choice B is incorrect as it may give the impression that missing doses is acceptable, which can reduce the effectiveness of the treatment. Choice D is incorrect because while consistency is important, the focus should be on treatment effectiveness rather than side effects.
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