A patient is prescribed ethinyl estradiol and norelgestromin transdermal contraceptive patch. Which statement, if made by the patient, indicates an understanding of the use of this drug?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (C): 1. The patient stating "I will remove the patch each month and replace it with a new patch 1 week later" indicates understanding of the correct usage of the contraceptive patch. 2. Ethinyl estradiol and norelgestromin are combined hormonal contraceptives that require a once-weekly application for 3 weeks followed by a patch-free week to allow for menstruation. 3. This statement reflects proper adherence to the dosing schedule, ensuring continuous contraceptive efficacy and hormone levels. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A. The patch does not act as a physical barrier; it releases hormones to prevent pregnancy. B. Ethinyl estradiol and norelgestromin are combined hormonal contraceptives, not progestin-only, so side effects may vary. D. The patch should be applied to the skin, not in the vaginal area, and is not meant for immediate use before intercourse.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: - Thyroxine (levothyroxine) is best absorbed on an empty stomach, so it should be taken at least 4 hours apart from medications like cholestyramine, which can interfere with its absorption. - Option A is incorrect because aluminum-containing antacids do not directly interact with levothyroxine. - Option B is incorrect as the dosage of insulin is not typically affected by levothyroxine. - Option D is incorrect as levothyroxine does not directly impact warfarin dosage.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased insulin sensitivity. Metformin works by decreasing hepatic glucose production, increasing peripheral glucose uptake, and improving insulin sensitivity in tissues. It does not increase gluconeogenesis (A), decrease GI glucose absorption (C), or increase pancreatic insulin release (D). By enhancing insulin sensitivity, Metformin helps lower blood glucose levels in individuals with type 2 diabetes.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: NSAIDs. NSAIDs are commonly used to manage gout due to their anti-inflammatory properties, which help reduce inflammation and pain associated with gout attacks. They work by inhibiting the enzyme responsible for producing prostaglandins, which are involved in the inflammatory response. Coleseyelam (A) is a cholesterol-lowering medication, not used for gout. Vitamin A (B) is a vitamin and not indicated for gout management. Aminocarproic acid (C) is used to treat excessive bleeding and is not associated with managing gout.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Amitriptyline. This tricyclic antidepressant is commonly used to manage neuropathic pain, improve sleep quality, and treat depression. Amitriptyline can help alleviate the patient's symptoms of poor sleep, depressed mood, poor appetite, and neuropathic pain due to its dual mechanism of action that involves inhibiting the reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine. A: Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety and insomnia, but it does not address neuropathic pain or depression symptoms. C: Trazodone is a sedating antidepressant often used for insomnia, but it may not be as effective for neuropathic pain as amitriptyline. D: Escitalopram is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) used for depression and anxiety, but it may not be as effective for neuropathic pain as amitriptyline.