A patient is prescribed an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor for the management of hypertension. Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor closely in the patient?

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Adult Health Nursing Quizlet Final Questions

Question 1 of 9

A patient is prescribed an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor for the management of hypertension. Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor closely in the patient?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: When a patient is prescribed with an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor for managing hypertension, the nurse should monitor closely for signs of hyperkalemia. ACE inhibitors can affect the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system, leading to decreased aldosterone secretion and impaired potassium excretion by the kidneys. As a result, potassium levels in the blood may increase, leading to hyperkalemia.

Question 2 of 9

Which of the following dental conditions is characterized by a localized collection of pus resulting from a bacterial infection of the tooth pulp?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: A dental abscess is characterized by a localized collection of pus that results from a bacterial infection of the tooth pulp, leading to swelling, pain, and inflammation. The infection typically occurs when bacteria enter the tooth through a cavity, crack, or other dental injury. The abscess can cause significant pain and discomfort and must be treated promptly by a dentist to prevent further complications. Dental caries refer to tooth decay or cavities that result from the breakdown of tooth structure by acids produced by bacteria. Periodontitis is a severe gum infection that damages the soft tissue and destroys the bone that supports the teeth. Oral candidiasis is a fungal infection that affects the mouth and throat.

Question 3 of 9

A nurse is preparing to assist with a cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) procedure for a patient in cardiac arrest. What action should the nurse prioritize during the initial assessment?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct action to prioritize during the initial assessment when preparing to assist with a cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) procedure for a patient in cardiac arrest is to assess the patient's airway, breathing, and circulation (ABCs). This involves quickly checking the patient's airway for any obstructions, assessing their breathing for signs of breathing difficulties or absence of breathing, and evaluating their circulation by checking for a pulse. This step is crucial in determining the need for immediate intervention, such as clearing the airway, providing rescue breaths, or initiating chest compressions. By prioritizing the assessment of the ABCs, the nurse can promptly identify and address life-threatening issues to improve the patient's chances of survival during a cardiac arrest situation.

Question 4 of 9

What symptom is an INDICATOR of cranial nerve involvement?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Difficulty of speaking and chewing is an indicator of cranial nerve involvement. Cranial nerves are responsible for controlling various functions of the head and neck, including speech and mastication. Impairment of cranial nerve function can lead to difficulty in these activities. In the context of the question, with the patient in the stroke unit, cranial nerve involvement can occur due to the stroke affecting the brain regions responsible for cranial nerve function. Loss of pain sensation, spastic paralysis of the extremities, and forgetfulness with syncope are not specific indicators of cranial nerve involvement in this scenario.

Question 5 of 9

Which of the following interventions is appropriate for managing a conscious patient with a severe nosebleed (epistaxis)?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: When managing a conscious patient with a severe nosebleed (epistaxis), the appropriate intervention is to have the patient sit upright and lean slightly forward to prevent blood from flowing into the throat and causing choking or swallowing. Pinching the soft part of the nose just below the bony part can help apply pressure to the bleeding vessel and stop the bleeding. This maneuver also helps compress the blood vessels in the nose, promoting clot formation and stopping the bleeding. It is important not to tilt the head back as this can cause blood to flow into the throat and potentially lead to swallowing, choking, or aspiration. Packing the nose with cotton gauze should be done by medical professionals if the bleeding does not stop with direct pressure. Applying direct pressure to the forehead is not effective for managing nosebleeds; pressure should be applied to the nostrils instead.

Question 6 of 9

A patient presents with redness, pain, and photophobia in the left eye. Slit-lamp examination reveals ciliary injection, corneal edema, and a mid-dilated pupil with fixed reaction to light. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The presentation described in the question is most consistent with anterior uveitis. Anterior uveitis, also known as iritis, is characterized by redness, pain, and photophobia in the affected eye. Slit-lamp examination typically reveals ciliary injection (reddening of the conjunctiva and episclera), corneal edema, and a mid-dilated pupil with a fixed reaction to light (miosis). This occurs due to inflammation within the anterior chamber of the eye involving the iris and ciliary body.

Question 7 of 9

A patient presents with chest pain, dyspnea, and syncope. An electrocardiogram (ECG) shows a wide QRS complex with absence of P waves. Which cardiovascular disorder is most likely responsible for these symptoms?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Ventricular tachycardia (VT) is a potentially life-threatening arrhythmia characterized by wide QRS complexes and absence of P waves on electrocardiogram (ECG). Patients with VT may present with symptoms such as chest pain, dyspnea, and syncope due to reduced cardiac output and ineffective pumping of the heart. VT is a serious condition that requires prompt treatment to prevent hemodynamic compromise and potential cardiac arrest. Stable angina typically presents with chest pain that is provoked by exertion and relieved by rest or nitroglycerin. Atrial fibrillation is characterized by an irregularly irregular rhythm with absent P waves on ECG. Supraventricular tachycardia typically presents with a narrow QRS complex on ECG.

Question 8 of 9

In three year's tie, Nurse Florence needs to attain certain number of continuing Professional Development units to be able to renew her __________.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Nurse Florence needs to attain a certain number of continuing Professional Development units in order to renew her Professional License. Continuing Professional Development ensures that nurses stay up-to-date with the latest advancements and best practices in the field, ultimately leading to improved patient care outcomes. Renewing the Professional License is crucial for Nurse Florence to legally practice nursing and demonstrate her commitment to ongoing learning and development in the profession.

Question 9 of 9

On the question as to which of the following are the effects of AIDS on pregnancy, one teenager cited a wrong answer which was ________.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The effects of AIDS on pregnancy do not generally include repeated abortion as a direct consequence. AIDS can impact pregnancy by increasing the risk of complications such as premature birth, low birth weight, and potential transmission of the virus from mother to child. Infertility can also be a concern, but repeated abortion is not a common effect of AIDS on pregnancy. It is important to provide accurate information about the effects of AIDS on pregnancy to ensure proper understanding and support for individuals affected by this condition.

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