A patient is prescribed acyclovir (Zovirax) for the treatment of genital herpes. What is the expected outcome of this medication?

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WGU Pathophysiology Final Exam Questions

Question 1 of 5

A patient is prescribed acyclovir (Zovirax) for the treatment of genital herpes. What is the expected outcome of this medication?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The expected outcome of acyclovir (Zovirax) for the treatment of genital herpes is decreased viral shedding. Acyclovir is an antiviral medication that works by inhibiting the replication of the herpes virus, thereby reducing viral shedding and helping to control outbreaks. Choice A, decreased testosterone production, and Choice B, decreased libido, are unrelated outcomes of acyclovir treatment for genital herpes. Choice D, decreased bacterial replication, is also incorrect as acyclovir specifically targets viruses and does not affect bacterial replication.

Question 2 of 5

A patient with systemic candidiasis has been prescribed flucytosine. The nurse should be aware of the need to administer this drug with which of the following?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Amphotericin B. When treating systemic candidiasis, Amphotericin B is the drug of choice, not flucytosine. Amphotericin B is an antifungal medication used to treat severe fungal infections like systemic candidiasis. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because vitamin D and calcium supplements, fluconazole, and penicillin G are not the drugs of choice for treating systemic candidiasis.

Question 3 of 5

A patient is being educated on the administration of tinidazole (Tindamax). Which of the following indicates that the patient understands the administration of tinidazole?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Tinidazole (Tindamax) is known to cause a bitter or metallic taste in the mouth. This side effect is common and indicates that the patient understands the medication they are taking. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not specifically relate to the common side effects or administration details of tinidazole.

Question 4 of 5

The neurotransmitter GABA mainly functions to trigger inhibitory postsynaptic potentials (IPSPs). Therefore, when explaining this to a group of nursing students, the nurse will state:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: When GABA binds with a receptor site, it causes hyperpolarization of the local nerve membrane, making it less excitable. This hyperpolarization leads to inhibition of nerve cell activity. Choice A is incorrect because GABA is a neurotransmitter itself and does not require three chemical substances to stimulate activity between cells. Choice B is incorrect as GABA triggers inhibitory postsynaptic potentials (IPSPs), leading to hyperpolarization, not depolarization, of the postsynaptic membrane. Choice D is also incorrect as it describes a process involving cholinergic receptors and acetylcholine, which is unrelated to GABA's mechanism of action.

Question 5 of 5

A client has been admitted to the hospital with symptoms of Guillain-Barr© syndrome. Which aspect of the client's condition would require priority monitoring?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In Guillain-Barr© syndrome, respiratory muscle weakness can lead to respiratory compromise, making it crucial to prioritize monitoring for signs of respiratory distress. Monitoring oxygen saturation levels is important but is secondary to assessing for respiratory compromise in this condition. Changes in consciousness and monitoring blood pressure closely are not typically the priority in Guillain-Barr© syndrome.

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