A patient is prescribed a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) for the treatment of peptic ulcer disease. Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor closely in the patient?

Questions 164

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Adult Health Nursing Answer Key Questions

Question 1 of 9

A patient is prescribed a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) for the treatment of peptic ulcer disease. Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor closely in the patient?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) are commonly prescribed for conditions involving excessive stomach acid production, such as peptic ulcer disease. One of the potential adverse effects of PPIs, such as omeprazole or pantoprazole, is the risk of hypokalemia. Hypokalemia is a condition characterized by low levels of potassium in the bloodstream. Prolonged use of PPIs can inhibit the absorption of potassium in the intestines, leading to a decrease in potassium levels in the body. Hypokalemia can present with symptoms such as muscle weakness, fatigue, irregular heartbeat, and in severe cases, it can result in life-threatening complications like cardiac arrhythmias. Therefore, it is essential for the nurse to closely monitor the patient for signs and symptoms of hypokalemia while on PPI therapy, especially if the patient is at risk for developing electrolyte imbalances.

Question 2 of 9

The nurse instructs the patient that the BEST time for an incontinent patient to take his diuretics is

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The best time for an incontinent patient to take diuretics is at bedtime. This timing allows for increased urine production during the night, consequently reducing the need for frequent toileting during the day. By taking the diuretic at bedtime, the patient can manage their incontinence more effectively and have better rest without disruptions from frequent urination during the day.

Question 3 of 9

Amitriptyline, an antidepressant is the drug of choice in treating Bulimia. What is a COMMON side effect of this drug?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Amitriptyline, being a tricyclic antidepressant, commonly causes anticholinergic side effects. These effects include dry mouth, constipation, blurred vision, urinary retention, and confusion. Anticholinergic effects are due to the drug's inhibition of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine, which can lead to the symptoms mentioned above. These side effects can be bothersome for patients taking amitriptyline, but they are generally manageable and often improve over time as the body adjusts to the medication. In the case of bulimia treatment, the benefits of using amitriptyline to address the underlying psychological issues often outweigh the side effects.

Question 4 of 9

Which of the following is a common complication associated with long-term corticosteroid use in patients with rheumatoid arthritis?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Long-term corticosteroid use in patients with rheumatoid arthritis can lead to osteoporosis, which is a common complication. Osteoporosis causes weakening of the bones, increasing the risk of fractures, particularly in weight-bearing bones such as the hip, spine, and wrist. Osteoporotic fractures are a significant concern in patients on long-term corticosteroid therapy, highlighting the importance of monitoring bone health and considering preventive measures such as calcium, Vitamin D supplementation, and regular bone density testing. While osteonecrosis of the femoral head and avascular necrosis of the talus can also occur as complications of corticosteroid use, osteoporotic fractures are more commonly associated with this type of therapy in patients with rheumatoid arthritis. Septic arthritis, on the other hand, is not directly related to corticosteroid use but can occur due to other factors such as joint infections.

Question 5 of 9

Which of the following definition MOST accurately describes meningomyelocele? It is _______.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Meningomyelocele is a type of neural tube defect where there is a protrusion of the spinal cord, cerebrospinal fluid, and meninges through a defect in the vertebrae, forming a sac on the surface of the back. This condition occurs during fetal development when the neural tube fails to close completely, leading to the exposure of the spinal cord and its coverings. This herniation can result in a range of neurological deficits and complications, requiring surgical repair shortly after birth to prevent further damage and infections.

Question 6 of 9

A patient presents with a painful thyroid nodule and signs of hypothyroidism. Fine-needle aspiration biopsy reveals Hurthle cells with nuclear features suggestive of malignancy. Which endocrine disorder is most likely responsible for these symptoms?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Hurthle cell carcinoma is a subtype of thyroid cancer that arises from the follicular cells in the thyroid gland. Patients with Hurthle cell carcinoma may present with a painful thyroid nodule, which can be associated with signs of hypothyroidism due to the disruption of thyroid hormone production by the tumor. Fine-needle aspiration biopsy revealing Hurthle cells with nuclear features suggestive of malignancy is a characteristic finding in this type of carcinoma.

Question 7 of 9

When conducting a nursing history on the Health Perception, Health Management pattern of functioning what is the APPROPRIATE question to be asked pre-operatively?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: When conducting a nursing history on the Health Perception, Health Management pattern of functioning pre-operatively, an appropriate question to ask would be "Are you aware of risk factors for your disease?" This question helps assess the individual's level of awareness and understanding of their health condition and the factors that may impact it. Understanding the patient's knowledge of their risk factors can help guide interventions and education before surgery to optimize their health outcomes. Asking about perceived wound healing, shortness of breath, or weight changes may not be directly related to the patient's awareness of their disease risk factors in the pre-operative setting.

Question 8 of 9

A patient expresses concerns about the potential side effects of a prescribed medication. What is the nurse's best approach to address these concerns?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The nurse's best approach to address a patient's concerns about the potential side effects of a prescribed medication is to provide the patient with accurate information about potential side effects and management strategies. It is important for the nurse to acknowledge the patient's concerns, listen attentively, and offer clear explanations to help alleviate any fears or uncertainties. Providing accurate information can empower the patient to make informed decisions about their healthcare and feel more confident in taking the prescribed medication. Dismissing or ignoring the patient's concerns can lead to mistrust and non-adherence to the treatment plan. It is essential for the nurse to prioritize open communication and patient education to ensure the patient's well-being and compliance with the prescribed medication regimen.

Question 9 of 9

The purpose why the head nurse asked Nurse Rosie to submit an IR is to ______.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The purpose of asking Nurse Rosie to submit an Incident Report (IR) is most likely to note patterns of incidences in the same unit. Incident reports are essential tools in healthcare settings to track and analyze unexpected events, errors, or situations that may impact patient care and safety. By collecting and reviewing incident reports, the head nurse can identify trends, patterns, or commonalities in the occurrences within the unit. This information allows for targeted interventions, improvements in practices, and enhanced patient safety. Therefore, asking Nurse Rosie to submit an IR would serve the purpose of noting patterns of incidences in the same unit for proactive and quality care delivery.

Access More Questions!

ATI RN Basic


$89/ 30 days

ATI RN Premium


$150/ 90 days