ATI RN
test bank foundations of nursing Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient is postoperative day 6 following tympanoplasty and mastoidectomy. The patient has phoned the surgical unit and states that she is experiencing occasional sharp, shooting pains in her affected ear. How should the nurse best interpret this patients complaint?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Postoperative day 6 following tympanoplasty and mastoidectomy is still within the early phase of recovery, where occasional sharp, shooting pains in the affected ear can be expected due to the healing process. Here's a step-by-step rationale: 1. Timing: It is only day 6 post-surgery, so it is normal to experience some pain as part of the healing process. 2. Nature of pain: Sharp, shooting pains are common post-surgery due to tissue healing and nerve regeneration. 3. Lack of other symptoms: The patient did not report any other concerning symptoms like fever or discharge, which would be more indicative of an infection. 4. Unlikely complications: Spontaneous rupture of the tympanic membrane or unsuccessful surgery would typically present with more severe and consistent symptoms. Summary: - B: Unlikely as there are no other signs of infection. - C: Unlikely as the pain is described as occasional and sharp. - D:
Question 2 of 9
A patient with metastatic cancer has developed trigeminal neuralgia and is taking carbamazepine (Tegretol) for pain relief. What principle applies to the administration of this medication?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: The patient should be monitored for bone marrow depression. Carbamazepine can cause bone marrow suppression, leading to decreased production of blood cells. Monitoring blood counts is crucial to detect this adverse effect early. Choice A is incorrect as Tegretol can have serious adverse effects, including bone marrow depression. Choice C is incorrect as the main side effects of carbamazepine are related to the central nervous system, not renal dysfunction. Choice D is incorrect as medications like carbamazepine should be started at a low dose and gradually titrated up to minimize side effects.
Question 3 of 9
Which form of heart disease in women of childbearing years usually has a benign effect on pregnancy?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Mitral valve prolapse. This condition is usually benign during pregnancy because the heart's workload increases, and the mitral valve is a one-way valve that prevents blood from flowing back into the left atrium. Mitral valve prolapse typically does not significantly affect the heart's ability to pump blood efficiently during pregnancy. Rationale: 1. Cardiomyopathy (A) can worsen during pregnancy, leading to complications for both the mother and the fetus. 2. Rheumatic heart disease (C) can cause valve damage, increasing the risk of complications during pregnancy. 3. Congenital heart disease (D) varies in severity and can pose risks during pregnancy, depending on the specific condition. Summary: Mitral valve prolapse is the correct answer as it is less likely to cause significant issues during pregnancy compared to the other options provided.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse has observed that an older adult patient with a diagnosis of end-stage renal failure seems to prefer to have his eldest son make all of his health care decisions. While the family is visiting, the patient explains to you that this is a cultural practice and very important to him. How should you respond?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Work with the team to negotiate informed consent. In this scenario, the nurse should prioritize respecting the patient's cultural beliefs while also ensuring the patient's autonomy and right to make decisions about his own healthcare. By working with the healthcare team to negotiate informed consent, the nurse can involve both the patient and his eldest son in the decision-making process, ensuring that the patient's preferences are respected while also upholding ethical principles of patient autonomy and beneficence. This approach promotes collaboration and respect for cultural values while still safeguarding the patient's rights. Choice A is incorrect because it does not involve the patient in the decision-making process and could undermine his autonomy. Choice B is incorrect as it disregards the patient's cultural beliefs and preferences. Choice D is incorrect as it may violate the patient's right to information and involvement in his own care.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse is caring for a patient who just underwentan intravenous pyelography that revealed a renal calculus obstructing the left ureter. What is the nurse’sfirstpriorityin caring for this patient?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Monitor the patient for fever, rash, and difficulty breathing. The rationale is as follows: 1. Renal calculus obstruction can lead to complications such as infection, so monitoring for fever is crucial. 2. Rash can indicate an allergic reaction to the contrast dye used in the procedure. 3. Difficulty breathing may signal a severe reaction or complications. Summary: A: Turning the patient on the right side does not directly address the urgent need to monitor for potential complications. B: While fluid intake is important, it is not the immediate priority when the patient is at risk of developing complications. D: Administering narcotic medications may be necessary for pain relief but does not address the potential emergent issues related to the obstruction.
Question 6 of 9
When teaching patients about the risk factors of cervical cancer, what would the nurse identify as the most important risk factor?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Human papillomavirus (HPV). HPV is the most important risk factor for cervical cancer as it is responsible for almost all cases. Step 1: HPV infection can lead to changes in cervical cells, increasing the risk of cancer. Step 2: Early detection and vaccination against HPV can prevent cervical cancer. Step 3: Other factors like late childbearing, postmenopausal bleeding, and tobacco use may be associated with increased risk but are not as directly linked to cervical cancer development.
Question 7 of 9
The patient is to receive multiple medications via the nasogastric tube. The nurse is concerned that the tube may become clogged. Which action isbestfor the nurseto take?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (D): Checking with the pharmacy for availability of liquid forms of medications is the best action because it reduces the risk of clogging the nasogastric tube. Liquid medications are less likely to cause blockages compared to nonliquid medications. Additionally, liquid forms are easier to administer through the tube. By using liquid medications, the nurse can ensure that the medications flow smoothly through the tube without causing any obstructions. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A: Instilling nonliquid medications without diluting can increase the risk of tube clogging. B: Irrigating the tube with water after all medications are given may not prevent clogging effectively and could introduce unnecessary moisture into the tube. C: Mixing all medications together can lead to potential drug interactions and may not address the issue of tube clogging effectively.
Question 8 of 9
A gerontologic nurse is advocating for diagnostic testing of an 81-year-old patient who is experiencing personality changes. The nurse is aware of what factor that is known to affect the diagnosis and treatment of brain tumors in older adults?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because the cognitive effects of aging can mimic symptoms of brain tumors in older adults, leading to misdiagnosis or delayed diagnosis. Aging can also affect the presentation, progression, and treatment outcomes of brain tumors. Option B is incorrect as brain tumors in older adults can indeed produce focal effects. Option C is incorrect as not all older adults have numerous benign brain tumors, and this is not a factor affecting the diagnosis and treatment of brain tumors in this case. Option D is incorrect as age alone does not preclude treatment for brain tumors.
Question 9 of 9
A nurse is caring for a 33-year-old male who has come to the clinic for a physical examination. He states that he has not had a routine physical in 5 years. During the examination, the physician finds that digital rectal examination (DRE) reveals stoney hardening in the posterior lobe of the prostate gland that is not mobile. The nurse recognizes that the observation typically indicates what?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Evidence of a more advanced lesion. A stoney hardening in the posterior lobe of the prostate gland that is not mobile is indicative of a more advanced lesion, such as prostate cancer. This finding suggests that the lesion has progressed beyond the early stages. In early prostate cancer, the prostate gland may feel firm but not stoney hard, and the lesion is usually mobile. Metastatic disease would involve spread of the cancer to other parts of the body, which is not evident from the DRE alone. A normal finding would not present as stoney hardening and lack of mobility in the prostate gland during a DRE.