ATI RN
test bank foundations of nursing Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient is postoperative day 6 following tympanoplasty and mastoidectomy. The patient has phoned the surgical unit and states that she is experiencing occasional sharp, shooting pains in her affected ear. How should the nurse best interpret this patients complaint?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Postoperative day 6 following tympanoplasty and mastoidectomy is still within the early phase of recovery, where occasional sharp, shooting pains in the affected ear can be expected due to the healing process. Here's a step-by-step rationale: 1. Timing: It is only day 6 post-surgery, so it is normal to experience some pain as part of the healing process. 2. Nature of pain: Sharp, shooting pains are common post-surgery due to tissue healing and nerve regeneration. 3. Lack of other symptoms: The patient did not report any other concerning symptoms like fever or discharge, which would be more indicative of an infection. 4. Unlikely complications: Spontaneous rupture of the tympanic membrane or unsuccessful surgery would typically present with more severe and consistent symptoms. Summary: - B: Unlikely as there are no other signs of infection. - C: Unlikely as the pain is described as occasional and sharp. - D:
Question 2 of 9
A patient with HIV will be receiving care in the home setting. What aspect of self-care should the nurse emphasize during discharge education?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Importance of personal hygiene. Maintaining good personal hygiene is crucial for patients with HIV to prevent infections. This includes regular handwashing, oral care, and bathing. By emphasizing personal hygiene, the nurse can help the patient reduce the risk of opportunistic infections. Prophylactic antibiotics (choice A) are important but should be prescribed by the healthcare provider. Signs and symptoms of wasting syndrome (choice C) are significant, but focusing on prevention through hygiene is more practical. Adjusting antiretroviral dosages (choice D) is the responsibility of the healthcare provider, not the patient.
Question 3 of 9
A patient has been diagnosed with polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS). The nurse should encourage what health promotion activity to address the patients hormone imbalance and infertility?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Weight loss. In PCOS, weight loss can help improve hormone balance and fertility by reducing insulin resistance and regulating hormone levels. Excess weight can exacerbate symptoms of PCOS. Kegel exercises (A) are beneficial for pelvic floor strength but do not directly address hormone imbalance. Increased fluid intake (B) is important for overall health but does not specifically target hormone imbalance. Topical antibiotics (D) are unrelated to PCOS treatment.
Question 4 of 9
A nurse is reviewing urinary laboratory results.Which finding will cause the nurse to follow up?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because a protein level of 2 mg/100 mL in urine indicates proteinuria, which can be a sign of kidney dysfunction or other underlying health issues. The nurse should follow up to assess further for possible kidney disease or other conditions. Choice B is not a cause for concern as a urine output of 80 mL/hr is within the normal range. Choice C indicates concentrated urine, which may be due to dehydration but does not necessarily require immediate follow-up. Choice D is within the normal range for urine pH and does not typically warrant immediate follow-up.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse is planning the care of a patient with AIDS who is admitted to the unit withPneumocystis pneumonia (PCP). Which nursing diagnosis has the highest priority for this patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ineffective Airway Clearance. In a patient with AIDS and PCP, maintaining clear airways is crucial to prevent respiratory distress and hypoxia. Pneumocystis pneumonia can cause thick secretions and mucus plugging, leading to difficulty breathing. Ensuring effective airway clearance is a priority to optimize oxygenation and prevent respiratory complications. Impaired oral mucous membranes (B) and imbalanced nutrition (C) are important considerations but not as immediate as airway clearance. Activity intolerance (D) may be a concern for the patient but ensuring adequate oxygenation takes precedence.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse is providing discharge education to an adult patient who will begin a regimen of ocular medications for the treatment of glaucoma. How can the nurse best determine if the patient is able to self-administer these medications safely and effectively?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. By asking the patient to demonstrate the instillation of medications, the nurse can directly assess the patient's ability to self-administer the medications safely and effectively. This method allows for a practical demonstration of skills, which is more reliable than relying solely on verbal descriptions or past experiences. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because assessing for previous inability, describing the method, or evaluating functional status may not directly demonstrate the patient's competency in self-administering ocular medications.
Question 7 of 9
A pediatric nurse is emotionally distraught by the death of a 9-year-old girl who received care on the unit over the course of many admissions spanning several years. What action is the most appropriate response to the nurses own grief?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because taking time off from work to mourn allows the nurse to process their emotions and prevent burnout. This self-care step promotes mental well-being and helps prevent the nurse from being overwhelmed by their grief. Choice B is incorrect as it may prolong the grieving process and create a constant reminder of the loss. Choice C could potentially burden the patient's family with the nurse's grief, making it an inappropriate action. Choice D, attending the memorial service, may be emotionally challenging and may not provide the nurse with the necessary space to cope with their grief effectively.
Question 8 of 9
A nurse wants to find all the pertinent patientinformation in one record, regardless of the number of times the patient entered the health care system. Which record should the nurse find?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Electronic health record. An Electronic Health Record (EHR) contains comprehensive health information about an individual that is collected across different health care providers and organizations. This includes medical history, diagnoses, medications, treatment plans, immunization dates, allergies, radiology images, and laboratory test results. The EHR is designed to be accessible by authorized healthcare providers and ensures that all pertinent patient information is available in one centralized record, regardless of the number of times the patient entered the health care system. A: Electronic medical record (EMR) typically contains information from a single provider or organization. C: Electronic charting record is more focused on documenting care provided during a specific encounter. D: Electronic problem record is limited to tracking specific health issues or conditions.
Question 9 of 9
When teaching patients about the risk factors of cervical cancer, what would the nurse identify as the most important risk factor?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Human papillomavirus (HPV). HPV is the most important risk factor for cervical cancer as it is responsible for almost all cases. Step 1: HPV infection can lead to changes in cervical cells, increasing the risk of cancer. Step 2: Early detection and vaccination against HPV can prevent cervical cancer. Step 3: Other factors like late childbearing, postmenopausal bleeding, and tobacco use may be associated with increased risk but are not as directly linked to cervical cancer development.