ATI RN
foundation of nursing practice questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient is in the primary infection stage of HIV. What is true of this patients current health status?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: During the primary infection stage of HIV, the patient is newly infected with the virus. At this stage, the patient's immune system has not yet produced HIV-specific antibodies, making it difficult to detect HIV infection using standard antibody tests. Instead, the virus can be detected by testing for the presence of HIV RNA or p24 antigen. The primary infection stage is characterized by a high level of viral replication and rapid spread of the virus throughout the body. In this early stage, the patient may experience flu-like symptoms such as fever, sore throat, muscle aches, and swollen lymph nodes. The absence of HIV-specific antibodies means that the patient is highly infectious and can easily transmit the virus to others. As the infection progresses, the patient will eventually develop HIV-specific antibodies, which can be detected through antibody tests.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse is explaining to the nursing students working on the antepartum unit how to assess for edema. Which edema assessment score indicates edema of the lower extremities, face, hands, and sacral area? N R I G B.C M U S N T O
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Edema of the extremities, face, and sacral area is classified as +3 edema. Edema classified as +1 indicates minimal edema of the lower extremities. Marked edema of the lower extremities is +2 edema. Generalized massive edema (+4) includes the accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity.
Question 3 of 9
A patient has been admitted to the neurologic ICU with a diagnosis of a brain tumor. The patient is scheduled to have a tumor resection/removal in the morning. Which of the following assessment parameters should the nurse include in the initial assessment?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The most critical assessment parameter to include in the initial assessment of a patient with a brain tumor scheduled for surgery is the gag reflex. The gag reflex is a protective mechanism that prevents the entry of foreign objects into the airway and lungs. Patients undergoing brain tumor resection may be at risk for impaired gag reflex due to the effects of the tumor on cranial nerves or related structures. Identifying any impairment in the gag reflex is essential to prevent aspiration during and after the surgical procedure. Monitoring the gag reflex allows the healthcare team to take necessary precautions to protect the patient's airway and prevent complications. Therefore, assessing the gag reflex is crucial in the care of a patient with a brain tumor undergoing surgery.
Question 4 of 9
A nurse is teaching a health class about colorectalcancer. Which information should the nurse include in the teaching session? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A. A risk factor is smoking: Smoking has been identified as a risk factor for colorectal cancer. It is important for the nurse to include this information during the teaching session to emphasize the importance of smoking cessation in reducing the risk of developing colorectal cancer.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse is standing beside the patient’s bed. Nurse:How are you doing? Patient:I don’t feel good. Which element will the nurse identify as feedback?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In communication, feedback is the response or message provided by the receiver to the sender. In this scenario, the nurse asks the patient, "How are you doing?" The patient's response, "I don't feel good," is the feedback. It is the patient's reaction and message returning to the nurse. The nurse, in this context, is the sender initiating the conversation, while the patient is the receiver providing the feedback in response to the nurse's inquiry. Therefore, the statement "I don't feel good" constitutes the feedback in this communication exchange.
Question 6 of 9
A nurse is examining a patient who has been diagnosed with a fibroadenoma. The nurse should recognize what implication of this patients diagnosis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A fibroadenoma is a benign breast tumor commonly found in young women. In most cases, a fibroadenoma does not require radiation therapy. However, the patient might be referred for a biopsy to confirm the diagnosis and rule out any potential malignancy. While fibroadenomas can be related to hormonal changes in the body, they are not directly linked to the use of oral contraceptives. Recognizing this implication of the patient's diagnosis is essential for providing appropriate care and follow-up.
Question 7 of 9
When planning care for an adolescent who plays sports, which modification should the nurse include in the care plan?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When planning care for an adolescent who plays sports, it is important to provide adequate nutrition to meet their increased energy needs. Carbohydrates are the main source of energy, providing fuel for physical activity. Adolescents engaged in sports require a higher carbohydrate intake and should aim for 55% to 60% of their total daily kilocalories to support their activity levels. Carbohydrates are essential for providing energy during exercise, building and repairing muscles, and promoting overall performance. Increasing carbohydrate intake in the diet is a key modification to support the energy demands of an active adolescent involved in sports.
Question 8 of 9
Which routine nursing assessment is contraindicated for a patient admitted with suspected placenta previa?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Vaginal examination of the cervix may result in perforation of the placenta and subsequent hemorrhage in a patient admitted with suspected placenta previa. It is important to avoid any unnecessary manipulation of the cervix to prevent complications. Assessing cervical dilation and effacement should be avoided until placenta previa is ruled out to prevent harm to the patient.
Question 9 of 9
A physician explains to the patient that he has an inflammation of the Cowper glands. Where are the Cowper glands located?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The Cowper glands, also known as bulbourethral glands, are a pair of small exocrine glands located below the prostate gland, within the posterior aspect of the male urethra. These glands are responsible for producing a clear, viscous fluid that helps lubricate the urethra, neutralize acidic urine remnants, and provide a conducive environment for sperm to survive in the urethra. Inflammation of the Cowper glands can result in conditions such as urethritis or other discomfort related to the male reproductive system.