A patient is hospitalized following a stroke. Three days after admission, the patient is able to converse clearly with the nurse during the morning assessment. Early in the afternoon, the patient’s daughter runs out of the room and says, “My mother can’t talk. Somebody help!” Which response by the nurse is best?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The nurse should do a quick assessment to confirm the change in the patient's status, then notify the RN or physician. This is the best response because the nurse needs to immediately assess the patient's condition to ensure prompt intervention if needed. By confirming the change in the patient's status, the nurse can provide the necessary information to the healthcare team for appropriate evaluation and management. The other choices are incorrect because: A does not address the urgency of the situation, C involves unnecessary delay by waiting for the speech therapist, and D is not appropriate as the nurse should be the one assessing and notifying the healthcare team.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: weight loss. Weight loss is a common symptom of tuberculosis due to the impact of the infection on the body's metabolism and appetite. This symptom is important to recognize as it can be an early indicator of the disease. Dyspnea on exertion (B) is not a common symptom of tuberculosis, as it typically affects the lungs rather than causing difficulty breathing. Increased appetite (C) is not a typical symptom, as TB usually leads to decreased appetite and weight loss. Mental status changes (D) are not directly associated with tuberculosis and are more commonly seen in other conditions affecting the brain. Therefore, weight loss is the most relevant symptom to include in the teaching material for identifying possible cases of tuberculosis.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. In the Snellen eye chart test, the first number (20) represents the distance at which the client is viewing the chart, and the second number (40) represents the distance at which a person with normal vision can read the same line. Therefore, a client with 20/40 vision sees letters at 20 feet that others with normal vision can read at 40 feet. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately reflect the interpretation of the 20/40 vision result from the Snellen eye chart test. B is incorrect because the client does not see letters at 40 feet that others can read at 20 feet. Choices C and D are incorrect because the Snellen eye chart test measures visual acuity, not color perception.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Age-related changes. Older clients are more susceptible to immune system disorders due to age-related changes such as a weakened immune response, increased inflammation, and decreased production of immune cells. Providing special care is important to address these specific vulnerabilities. Incorrect choices: B: Use of multiple drugs (Polypharmacy) - While polypharmacy can impact the immune system, it is not the primary factor for providing special care to older clients with immune system disorders. C: Poor diet - While diet plays a role in overall health, it is not the main factor necessitating special care for older clients with immune system disorders. D: Reduced activity levels - Although physical activity is important for overall health, reduced activity levels are not the primary reason for providing special care to older clients with immune system disorders.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. The cranial nerve responsible for facial expression is CN VII, the facial nerve. 2. When a neurologist asks a patient to smile, they are testing the function of CN VII. 3. CN II (optic nerve) is responsible for vision, not facial expression. 4. CN X (vagus nerve) is responsible for various functions like heart rate and digestion, not facial expression. 5. CN XI (accessory nerve) is responsible for shoulder movement, not facial expression. Summary: Testing a patient's ability to smile involves assessing the function of CN VII, the facial nerve. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are associated with different functions and not responsible for controlling facial muscles.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Cooked vegetables. Cooking vegetables helps to kill harmful bacteria and parasites that may pose a risk of infection to an immunocompromised individual like a patient with HIV. Raw fruits (A) and raw vegetables (B) may carry pathogens that can be dangerous for someone with a weakened immune system. Caesar dressing (D) may contain raw eggs, which also pose a risk for infection. Therefore, choosing cooked vegetables is the safest option to reduce the risk of infection for the patient with HIV.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because respirations of 16 is an observable and measurable data point that can be quantified. Objective data are factual, measurable, and based on observable phenomena. In contrast, choices A, B, and D are subjective data as they rely on the patient's feelings or experiences, which are not directly measurable or observable by the nurse. Reporting a headache or feeling nauseated are subjective symptoms that are based on the patient's perception and cannot be verified without further assessment. Therefore, only choice C provides objective data that can be accurately reported by the nurse.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Hormonal imbalances are the primary cause of BPH in aging males. As men age, testosterone levels decrease and estrogen levels may increase relative to testosterone, leading to prostate gland growth. This is why hormonal imbalances are more likely the cause of BPH in older males. Explanation of other choices: A: Chronic infection of the urinary tract does not directly cause BPH, although it can lead to similar symptoms such as urinary frequency and urgency. B: Chronic cigarette smoking is not a direct cause of BPH, although it can contribute to overall prostate health and exacerbate symptoms. D: Chronic obstruction of the bladder due to stone is a separate condition from BPH, although it can cause similar urinary symptoms.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D - Shallow breathing and increasing lethargy. This could indicate a potential complication such as respiratory distress or postoperative infection. Shallow breathing may suggest respiratory compromise, while increasing lethargy could be a sign of systemic infection or inadequate oxygenation. A: Abdominal pain is common postoperatively and can be managed with pain medication. B: Serous drainage from the incision is normal and expected in the early postoperative period. C: Hypoactive bowel sounds are common after abdominal surgery due to anesthesia and manipulation of the bowel; it typically resolves as the patient recovers. In summary, the other options are common postoperative findings, while shallow breathing and increasing lethargy are concerning signs that require immediate attention.