ATI RN
Nursing Process Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient is hospitalized following a stroke. Three days after admission, the patient is able to converse clearly with the nurse during the morning assessment. Early in the afternoon, the patient’s daughter runs out of the room and says, “My mother can’t talk. Somebody help!” Which response by the nurse is best?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The nurse should do a quick assessment to confirm the change in the patient's status, then notify the RN or physician. This is the best response because the nurse needs to immediately assess the patient's condition to ensure prompt intervention if needed. By confirming the change in the patient's status, the nurse can provide the necessary information to the healthcare team for appropriate evaluation and management. The other choices are incorrect because: A does not address the urgency of the situation, C involves unnecessary delay by waiting for the speech therapist, and D is not appropriate as the nurse should be the one assessing and notifying the healthcare team.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse is gathering data on a patient. Which data will the nurse report as objective data?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Objective data are measurable and observable, such as vital signs. Respirations of 16 are a specific numerical measurement that can be quantified. This makes choice C the correct answer as it is factual and quantifiable. Choices A, B, and D are subjective data, as they rely on the patient's feelings or experiences, which are open to interpretation and not measurable. Therefore, the nurse should report choice C as objective data as it provides concrete information for assessment and decision-making.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse is gathering data on a patient. Which data will the nurse report as objective data?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Objective data in nursing refers to measurable and observable information. Respirations at 16 per minute are a specific, quantifiable measurement that the nurse can directly observe, making it objective data. This information is vital for assessing the patient's respiratory status accurately. Choice A is incorrect because stating "doesn't feel good" is a subjective statement based on the patient's perception and cannot be directly measured or observed. Choice B, reporting a headache, is also subjective as it relies on the patient's description of their symptoms. Choice D, being nauseated, is subjective as well, as it is a symptom reported by the patient and not a quantifiable measurement. In summary, choice C is correct as it represents objective data due to its quantifiable and observable nature, while the other choices are subjective and based on the patient's perceptions or feelings.
Question 4 of 9
For a client with polycythemia vera, how can the nurse help decrease the risk for thrombus formation?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Help the client don thromboembolic stocking or support hose during waking hours. This intervention helps decrease the risk for thrombus formation in polycythemia vera by promoting venous return and preventing blood pooling in the lower extremities. Compression stockings improve circulation and reduce the risk of blood clots. Isometric exercises (choice A) may increase blood pressure and heart rate, potentially worsening the risk of thrombus formation. Drinking excess fluid (choice C) can lead to hypervolemia and increase the risk of clotting. Resting immediately if chest pain develops (choice D) is important but does not directly address the prevention of thrombus formation in polycythemia vera.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse is working in a support group for client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Which point is most important for the nurse to stress?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: Choice C is the correct answer because following safer-sex practices is crucial in preventing the spread of HIV/AIDS. By emphasizing this point, the nurse can educate clients on reducing the risk of transmission. Safer-sex practices include using condoms and practicing monogamy. Choice A is incorrect because avoiding recreational drugs and alcohol, while important for overall health, is not directly related to preventing the spread of HIV/AIDS. Choice B is incorrect as it is essential for individuals to inform their sexual partners about their HIV status to prevent transmission and ensure informed consent. Choice D is incorrect because while it may be required by law in some places, it is not the most crucial point for preventing the spread of HIV/AIDS within a support group setting.
Question 6 of 9
When a neurologist asks a patient to smile, which cranial nerve is being tested?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. The cranial nerve responsible for facial expression is CN VII, the facial nerve. 2. When a neurologist asks a patient to smile, they are testing the function of CN VII. 3. CN II (optic nerve) is responsible for vision, not facial expression. 4. CN X (vagus nerve) is responsible for various functions like heart rate and digestion, not facial expression. 5. CN XI (accessory nerve) is responsible for shoulder movement, not facial expression. Summary: Testing a patient's ability to smile involves assessing the function of CN VII, the facial nerve. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are associated with different functions and not responsible for controlling facial muscles.
Question 7 of 9
A patient’s serum sodium is within normal range. The nurse estimates that serum osmolality should be:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C (280 to 295mOsm/kg) because serum osmolality is primarily determined by sodium, glucose, and blood urea nitrogen levels. Normal serum sodium range is 135-145 mEq/L, which corresponds to an osmolality range of 280-295 mOsm/kg. Choices A and B are incorrect as they do not align with normal serum sodium levels. Choice D is incorrect as it includes an excessively wide range that is not consistent with normal osmolality values.
Question 8 of 9
Which information indicates a nurse has a good understanding of a goal? It is a statement describing the patient’s accomplishments without a time
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step 1: A goal should be measurable to track progress effectively. Step 2: The statement "a measurable change in a patient's physical state" indicates a specific and quantifiable outcome. Step 3: This aligns with the SMART criteria for goal setting - Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Relevant, Time-bound. Step 4: Other choices lack the specificity and measurability required for a clear goal. Step 5: Choice A talks about restriction, which is not directly related to understanding a goal. Step 6: Choice B focuses on negative responses, which is not necessarily indicative of understanding the goal. Step 7: Choice C is vague and lacks the specificity of a measurable outcome.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the ff factors makes it important for the nurse to provide special care to older clients with an immune system disorder?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Age-related changes. Older clients are more susceptible to immune system disorders due to age-related changes such as a weakened immune response, increased inflammation, and decreased production of immune cells. Providing special care is important to address these specific vulnerabilities. Incorrect choices: B: Use of multiple drugs (Polypharmacy) - While polypharmacy can impact the immune system, it is not the primary factor for providing special care to older clients with immune system disorders. C: Poor diet - While diet plays a role in overall health, it is not the main factor necessitating special care for older clients with immune system disorders. D: Reduced activity levels - Although physical activity is important for overall health, reduced activity levels are not the primary reason for providing special care to older clients with immune system disorders.