ATI RN
foundations of nursing practice questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient is experiencing oliguria. Which actionshould the nurse performfirst?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Assess for bladder distention. Oliguria indicates decreased urine output, which could be due to urinary retention. Assessing for bladder distention helps identify the underlying cause. Requesting diuretics (B) without assessing first is premature. Increasing IV fluid rate (C) may worsen the situation if there is urinary retention. Encouraging caffeinated beverages (D) is not appropriate as they can worsen dehydration.
Question 2 of 9
In which situation would a dilation and curettage (D&C) be indicated?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because an incomplete abortion at 16 weeks may require a D&C to remove remaining tissue to prevent infection and complications. Incomplete abortion means not all fetal tissue has been expelled, posing a risk. Choice A (complete abortion at 8 weeks) does not require a D&C as all tissue is expelled. Choice C (threatened abortion at 6 weeks) does not necessitate immediate intervention. Choice D (incomplete abortion at 10 weeks) is not the best choice as the risk of complications increases with gestational age.
Question 3 of 9
A patient is using laxatives three times dailyto lose weight. After stopping laxative use, the patient has difficulty with constipation and wonders if laxatives should be taken again. Which information will the nurse share with the patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Long-term laxative use can lead to the bowel becoming less responsive to stimuli, resulting in constipation. This is due to the body becoming dependent on laxatives to stimulate bowel movements. Choice B is incorrect as laxatives typically do not cause trauma or scarring to the intestinal lining. Choice C is incorrect because while emollient laxatives can be helpful for constipation, long-term use is not recommended due to potential side effects. Choice D is incorrect because laxatives do not directly cause malnourishment or prevent waste production.
Question 4 of 9
A nurse is charting. Which information is criticalfor the nurse to document?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because documenting medication administration is critical for patient safety and continuity of care. By documenting the pain medication received, the nurse ensures accurate medication tracking and prevents errors. Choice A is incorrect as it lacks specific, objective information. Choice B is irrelevant to patient care. Choice D is inappropriate and violates patient confidentiality.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse works at a hospital that uses equity-focusedquality improvement. Which strategy is the hospital using?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Reduce disparities. In equity-focused quality improvement, the primary goal is to address and reduce disparities in healthcare outcomes and access. By focusing on reducing disparities, the hospital ensures that all patients receive equitable care regardless of their background. Documenting staff satisfaction (A) is important but not directly related to equity-focused improvement. Focusing on the family (B) is essential for patient-centered care but doesn't specifically address equity. Implementing change on a grand scale (C) may not necessarily target disparities directly. Therefore, reducing disparities aligns best with equity-focused quality improvement principles.
Question 6 of 9
A patient with end-stage heart failure has participated in a family meeting with the interdisciplinary team and opted for hospice care. On what belief should the patients care in this setting be based
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Meaningful living during terminal illness is best supported in the home. This is because hospice care focuses on providing compassionate care and support in the comfort of the patient's own home, which can enhance quality of life and dignity. Being in a familiar and comfortable environment allows the patient to receive personalized care and emotional support from family members. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because hospice care emphasizes comfort and quality of life over technologic interventions, designated facilities, and prolonging physiologic dying. Ultimately, the goal of hospice care is to prioritize the patient's emotional and physical well-being during the end stages of life.
Question 7 of 9
A patient has just died following urosepsis that progressed to septic shock. The patients spouse says, I knew this was coming, but I feel so numb and hollow inside. The nurse should know that these statements are characteristic of what?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Complicated grief and mourning. This is characterized by a sense of emotional numbness and feeling hollow inside, which the patient's spouse is experiencing after the patient's death. Complicated grief involves intense and prolonged mourning that may interfere with daily functioning. Other choices are incorrect because: B: Uncomplicated grief and mourning typically involves a range of emotions, including sadness and sorrow, but not the profound numbness and emptiness described. C: Depression stage of dying refers to a stage in the Kubler-Ross model, but the patient's spouse is not the one dying, so this does not apply. D: Acceptance stage of dying involves coming to terms with one's impending death, not the aftermath of losing a loved one to sepsis.
Question 8 of 9
A man tells the nurse that his father died of prostate cancer and he is concerned about his own risk of developing the disease, having heard that prostate cancer has a genetic link. What aspect of the pathophysiology of prostate cancer would underlie the nurses response?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because several studies have indeed shown an association between BRCA-2 mutation and an increased risk of prostate cancer. BRCA-2 mutation is known to be linked to an increased risk of various cancers, including prostate cancer. This genetic mutation can be inherited and passed down through generations, leading to a higher likelihood of developing prostate cancer. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because: B: HNPCC (Hereditary Nonpolyposis Colorectal Cancer) is not specifically associated with prostate cancer, and it is not an autosomal dominant mutation causing prostate cancer in men. C: TP53 gene is associated with other types of cancers, such as breast cancer, but not strongly linked to prostate cancer. D: Research has shown that genetics do play a role in the development of prostate cancer, contradicting the statement that genetics are unrelated to the disease.
Question 9 of 9
A patient is to undergo an ultrasound-guided core biopsy. The patient tells the nurse that a friend of hers had a stereotactic core biopsy. She wants to understand the differences between the two procedures.What would be the nurses best response?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because an ultrasound-guided core biopsy is indeed faster, less expensive, and does not use radiation. - "Faster": Ultrasound-guided biopsies are typically quicker compared to stereotactic biopsies, as they are performed in real-time using ultrasound imaging. - "Less expensive": Ultrasound-guided biopsies are generally more cost-effective than stereotactic biopsies due to the equipment and resources required. - "Does not use radiation": Unlike stereotactic biopsies which involve the use of X-rays for guidance, ultrasound-guided biopsies do not expose the patient to radiation, making them safer in that aspect. The other choices are incorrect because they either inaccurately state that ultrasound-guided biopsies use radiation (C), take more time (D), or imply a slight increase in cost without highlighting the key advantages of speed and lack of radiation (B).