A patient is engaged in bibliotherapy and begins to express his feelings because he closely associates his experience with that provided by the reading material. The nurse interprets this as which of the following?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Catharsis. Catharsis refers to the process of emotional release and purification through expressing feelings and emotions. In this scenario, the patient is engaging in bibliotherapy and expressing his feelings, indicating a release of pent-up emotions. This is a therapeutic process that allows the patient to process and cope with their emotions in a healthy way. Choice A: Insight is incorrect as it refers to gaining a deeper understanding or awareness, which is not explicitly mentioned in the scenario. Choice C: Anxiety reduction is incorrect as the scenario does not specify that the patient's goal is to reduce anxiety, but rather to express feelings associated with the reading material. Choice D: Problem solving is incorrect as the scenario does not involve the patient actively working through a specific problem, but rather expressing emotions related to the reading material.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Exhaustion. In the general adaptation syndrome model, developed by Hans Selye, the final stage is exhaustion. This stage occurs when the body can no longer cope with the stressors and resources are depleted. This leads to a breakdown in physical and emotional functioning. The other choices are incorrect because: A: Perception of a threat is the first stage (alarm reaction); B: Use of coping mechanisms occurs in the second stage (resistance); C: Physiologic response is a general term encompassing all stages, not specific to the final stage.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Quetiapine (Seroquel) is a second-generation antipsychotic agent. This is because second-generation antipsychotics, also known as atypical antipsychotics, have a lower risk of extrapyramidal side effects compared to first-generation antipsychotics. Quetiapine is known for its efficacy in treating both positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia. Fluphenazine, Thiothixene, and Chlorpromazine are all first-generation antipsychotic agents and are associated with a higher risk of extrapyramidal side effects and other adverse effects. Therefore, the correct choice for a second-generation antipsychotic agent is Quetiapine.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because describing vivid 'flashbacks' of being attacked is a defining behavior of PTSD according to the DSM-5 criteria. This symptom is specific to PTSD and indicates re-experiencing of the traumatic event. Choice A is not specific to PTSD and can occur in other conditions. Choice B is more related to mood disorders than PTSD. Choice D is more indicative of a need to disclose the trauma, which is common but not a defining behavior of PTSD.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step 1: Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are the first-line treatment for anxiety disorders due to their efficacy and tolerability. Step 2: SSRIs are also effective in treating somatic symptom disorders by addressing the underlying anxiety symptoms. Step 3: MAOIs are not commonly used for anxiety due to their dietary restrictions and potential for drug interactions. Step 4: Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) are less preferred due to their side effect profile and risk of toxicity. Step 5: Atypical antipsychotics are not typically prescribed for anxiety unless there is a specific indication for their use. Summary: B, SSRI is the correct choice for treating both anxiety and somatic symptom disorder, while the other options have limitations or are not commonly used for these conditions.