ATI RN
Test Bank Pharmacology and the Nursing Process Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient is diagnosed with Hashimoto’s thyroiditis and asks what causes it. The nurse would respond that the destruction of the thyroid in this condition is due to which of the following?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Autoantibodies. In Hashimoto's thyroiditis, the immune system mistakenly attacks the thyroid gland by producing autoantibodies against thyroid proteins such as thyroglobulin and thyroid peroxidase. These autoantibodies lead to inflammation and destruction of thyroid tissue. Antigen-antibody complexes (choice A) are not the main mechanism in Hashimoto's thyroiditis. Viral (choice B) and bacterial infections (choice D) do not directly cause autoimmune destruction of the thyroid in this condition. Autoantibodies targeting the thyroid gland are the key pathogenic factor in Hashimoto's thyroiditis.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse assesses the motor functions during a neurologic examination of a client. Which of the ff steps will help the nurse perform the examination effectively? Choose all that apply
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Allowing the client to grasp the nurse's hand firmly assesses grip strength and motor coordination. 2. This step helps evaluate the client's ability to follow instructions and perform a coordinated motor task accurately. 3. Assessing grip strength is essential in determining any muscle weakness or neurological deficits. 4. It also provides insight into the client's motor function and coordination abilities. Summary: - Choice B is incorrect because it focuses on sensory functions rather than motor functions. - Choice C assesses fine motor skills, not grip strength and coordination. - Choice D evaluates cognition and logic, which are not directly related to motor function assessment.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the ff. statements would the nurse understand is true when assessing normal auditory acuity using the Rinne test?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because in a normal Rinne test, air conduction is heard longer than bone conduction in both ears. This is due to the fact that air conduction involves the transmission of sound waves through the external auditory canal, middle ear, and inner ear, which is more efficient than bone conduction where the sound waves are transmitted directly to the inner ear through the bones of the skull. Therefore, when the tuning fork is placed on the mastoid bone (bone conduction) and then moved next to the ear (air conduction), the sound should be heard longer through air conduction. Choice A is incorrect because normal auditory acuity does not necessarily mean equal perception in both ears. Choice C is incorrect as bone conduction should be heard shorter than air conduction in a normal Rinne test. Choice D is incorrect as the test does not determine which ear perceives sound better, but rather the difference in duration between air and bone conduction.
Question 4 of 9
How can the nurse help monitor effectiveness of therapy for the patient with a pneumothorax and chest-drainage system?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Auscultate lung sounds. By auscultating lung sounds, the nurse can assess for changes in breath sounds which can indicate improvement or deterioration in the patient's condition. This helps monitor the effectiveness of therapy for a pneumothorax and chest-drainage system. Palpating for crepitus (A) is not directly related to monitoring therapy effectiveness. Documenting sputum color and amount (B) is important but does not specifically monitor therapy effectiveness. Monitoring suction level (D) is crucial but does not directly assess the patient's response to therapy.
Question 5 of 9
On the third day after a partial thyroidectomy, a client exhibits muscle twitching and hyperirritability of the nervous system. When questioned, the client reports numbness and tingling of the mouth and fingertips. Suspecting a life- threatening electrolyte disturbance, the nurse notifies the surgeon immediately. Which electrolyte disturbance most commonly follows thyroid surgery?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Following thyroid surgery, there is a risk of damaging the parathyroid glands, leading to hypocalcemia. 2. Symptoms of hypocalcemia include muscle twitching, hyperirritability, numbness, and tingling. 3. These symptoms align with the client's presentation, indicating a probable electrolyte imbalance. 4. Hypocalcemia is a common complication post-thyroidectomy due to parathyroid gland damage. 5. Prompt recognition and treatment of hypocalcemia are essential to prevent severe complications. Summary: B: Hyperkalemia - Not typically associated with thyroid surgery, symptoms differ. C: Hyponatremia - Unlikely post-thyroidectomy, symptoms don't match presentation. D: Hypermagnesemia - Rare post-thyroidectomy, symptoms and electrolyte disturbance don't align.
Question 6 of 9
A client has a routine Papanicolaou (Pap) test during a yearly gynecologic examination. The result reveals a class V finding. What should the nurse tell the client about this finding?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a class V Pap test finding indicates severe abnormalities, such as high-grade dysplasia or carcinoma in situ. Therefore, the nurse should instruct the client to undergo a biopsy as soon as possible to confirm the diagnosis and initiate appropriate treatment promptly. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because a class V result is not normal and requires immediate follow-up, rather than waiting or repeating the Pap test at a later time.
Question 7 of 9
Charles is started on chemotherapy, which is aimed at restoring dopaminergic activities. An example of such a drug is:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Dopar. Dopar is a drug that increases dopamine levels by converting into dopamine in the brain. This directly restores dopaminergic activities. Artane (A) is an anticholinergic used for Parkinson's symptoms, Elavil (B) is a tricyclic antidepressant, and Benadryl (C) is an antihistamine, none of which directly target dopaminergic activities like Dopar does.
Question 8 of 9
A client with supraglottic cancer undergoes a partial laryngectomy. Postoperatively, a cuffed tracheostomy tube is in place. When removing secretions that pool above the cuff, the nurse should instruct the client to:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Exhale deeply as the nurse re-inflates the cuff. Rationale: 1. When the cuff of the tracheostomy tube is deflated, the client should be instructed to exhale deeply to prevent aspiration of secretions. 2. Exhaling helps to clear the airway by pushing secretions out of the trachea, reducing the risk of aspiration. 3. Inhaling or holding the breath while the cuff is being re-inflated can increase the risk of inhaling secretions. 4. Coughing as the cuff is being deflated (choice A) may not be as effective in clearing secretions as exhaling deeply. 5. Taking a deep breath as the nurse deflates the cuff (choice C) may not be as effective as exhaling deeply in preventing aspiration. In summary, choice D is the correct answer because exhaling deeply helps clear secretions and reduce the risk of aspiration, while the other choices may
Question 9 of 9
A client receives a sealed radiation implant to treat cervical cancer. When caring for this client, the nurse should:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because bodily fluids and excretions (urine, feces, vomitus) can become contaminated with radiation from the implant. Therefore, they should be considered highly radioactive and handled appropriately. Choice B is incorrect because the client may remain radioactive for a longer period than 10 days post-implant removal. Choice C is incorrect because soiled linens should be handled according to radiation safety protocols and removed promptly. Choice D is incorrect because bed rest is not necessary unless specifically indicated by the healthcare provider; the client should be encouraged to move around as tolerated to prevent complications.