ATI RN
Physical Assessment NCLEX Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient is describing a very personal part of her history very quickly and in great detail. How should you react to this?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this situation, it is important to prioritize active listening over taking detailed notes. By pushing away from the keyboard or putting down your pen, you are signaling to the patient that you are fully present and engaged in listening to their story. This will help foster trust and encourage the patient to continue sharing their personal history. Taking notes can be done later, but the immediate focus should be on providing a supportive and attentive environment for the patient to share their experiences.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the following synovial joints would be an example of a condylar joint?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A condylar joint is a type of synovial joint that allows movement in two planes, typically flexion/extension and abduction/adduction. The interphalangeal joints of the hand, which are the joints between the phalanges (finger bones), exhibit this type of movement, making them an example of a condylar joint. The hip joint (choice A) is a ball-and-socket joint, the temporomandibular joint (choice C) is a hinge joint, and the intervertebral joint (choice D) is a cartilaginous joint, none of which are examples of condylar joints.
Question 3 of 9
You are observing a patient with heart failure and notice that there are pauses in his breathing. On closer examination, you notice that after the pauses the patient takes progressively deeper breaths and then progressively shallower breaths, which are followed by another apneic spell. The patient is not in any distress. You make the diagnosis of:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Cheyne-Stokes respiration is characterized by a pattern of breathing with gradual increase and then decrease in depth of breaths, followed by a period of apnea. This cycle repeats itself. It is commonly seen in patients with heart failure and other conditions affecting the central nervous system. The patient in this scenario is not in distress, which is typical of Cheyne-Stokes respiration. Ataxic (Biot's) breathing is characterized by unpredictable irregular breaths with varying depths and irregular pauses; it is seen in patients with damage to the medulla. Kussmaul's respiration is deep, rapid, and labored breathing seen in metabolic acidosis. COPD with prolonged expiration is a characteristic finding in patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, but in this case, the described breathing pattern is more consistent with Cheyne-Stokes respiration.
Question 4 of 9
You are examining a newborn and note that the right testicle is not in the scrotum. What should you do next?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When examining a newborn and noting that the right testicle is not in the scrotum, it is important to refer the newborn to a pediatric urologist for further evaluation and management. This condition could be a case of undescended testis (cryptorchidism), where the testicle fails to descend into the scrotum. Early intervention is crucial as the undescended testis may lead to complications such as infertility, testicular cancer, and inguinal hernia. Urology specialists can determine the best course of action to bring down the testis and ensure proper testicular development. Waiting or attempting manual descent without expertise could lead to complications, so it is best to involve a urologist for proper assessment and management.
Question 5 of 9
The ankle-brachial index (ABI) is calculated by dividing the systolic BP at the dorsalis pedis by the systolic BP at the brachial artery. Which of the following values would be consistent with mild peripheral arterial disease?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: An ABI value less than 0.9 is indicative of mild peripheral arterial disease (PAD). In this case, an ABI of 0.85 falls below the 0.9 threshold, suggesting diminished blood flow to the lower extremities due to PAD. An ABI of 1.1 (Choice A) is actually elevated and not indicative of PAD. Values of 0.65 (Choice C) and 0.35 (Choice D) are significantly lower and would be consistent with moderate to severe PAD, rather than mild.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the following is true of jugular venous pressure (JVP) measurement?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Jugular venous pressure (JVP) is measured as the vertical height of the blood column in centimeters above the sternal angle (Angle of Louis). To measure the JVP accurately, the patient should be positioned at a 30-45 degree angle (not 45-degree angle as in choice A). The value obtained by measuring the JVP in centimeters is then added to 5 cm, which represents the distance from the sternal angle to the right atrium. Therefore, the formula for calculating JVP is the vertical height of the blood column in cm + 5 cm. A JVP below 9 cm (not 9 cm or choice C) is generally considered normal, while a JVP above that level is considered elevated. It is important to measure the JVP correctly and interpret the findings in the context of the patient's
Question 7 of 9
You are examining an unconscious patient from another region and notice Beau's lines, a transverse groove across all of her nails, about 1 cm from the proximal nail fold. What would you do next?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Beau's lines are transverse grooves or depressions in the nails that occur from a temporary disruption in nail growth. These lines can be caused by a variety of factors, including systemic diseases, medication use, trauma, or environmental stressors. However, one of the most common causes of Beau's lines is a significant physiological stress such as a severe illness or major surgery that occurred about 3 months prior to the appearance of the lines. Therefore, looking for information from family and records regarding any problems that occurred around 3 months ago is the most appropriate next step to understand the underlying cause of Beau's lines in this unconscious patient. This information can provide crucial insights into the patient's medical history and potential underlying health issues that may need to be addressed.
Question 8 of 9
A 29-year-old woman comes to your office. As you take the history, you notice that she is speaking very quickly, and jumping from topic to topic so rapidly that you have trouble following her. You are able to find some connections between ideas, but it is difficult. Which word describes this thought process?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When a person's thought process is characterized by speaking rapidly, jumping from topic to topic, and making loose or tangential connections between ideas, it is referred to as a "flight of ideas." This type of thought process is commonly seen in conditions such as mania, where there is a marked increase in goal-directed activity, energy, and racing thoughts. In contrast, derailment refers to a disorganized thought process where the individual is unable to maintain a logical progression in their speech. Circumstantiality involves providing excessive and unnecessary detail before eventually reaching the main point. Incoherence is used to describe speech that is incomprehensible and disjointed, lacking any logical connection between ideas.
Question 9 of 9
A young man is concerned about a hard mass he has just noticed in the midline of his palate. On examination, it is indeed hard and in the midline. There are no mucosal abnormalities associated with this lesion. He is experiencing no other symptoms. What will you tell him is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A hard mass in the midline of the palate with no associated mucosal abnormalities is most likely a torus palatinus. Torus palatinus is a benign bony growth that often occurs in the midline of the hard palate. It is typically asymptomatic and does not require treatment unless it causes issues with function or hygiene. Leukoplakia is a clinical term used to describe a white patch in the mouth that cannot be scrapped off and is associated with a risk of cancer. Thrush (candidiasis) presents as white, creamy patches in the mouth that can be scrapped off and is caused by a yeast infection. Kaposi's sarcoma presents as red or purple patches or nodules in the mouth and is associated with immunocompromised individuals, like those with HIV/AIDS.