ATI RN
Health Assessment and Physical Examination Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
A patient is concerned about a dark skin lesion on her anterolateral abdomen. It has not changed, and there is no discharge or bleeding. On examination there is a medium brown circular lesion on the anterolateral wall of the abdomen. It is soft, has regular borders, is evenly pigmented, and is about 7 mm in diameter. What is this lesion?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Given the description provided, the lesion appears to be a dermatofibroma. Dermatofibromas are common benign skin lesions that typically present as a firm, solitary nodule on the skin. They commonly occur on the lower extremities but can also be found on the trunk. The characteristics of a dermatofibroma include being firm to the touch, having regular borders, being evenly pigmented, and a diameter typically less than 1 cm to 2 cm. They are usually painless and do not change significantly over time.
Question 2 of 5
Mrs. LaFarge is a 60-year-old who presents with urinary incontinence. She is unable to get to the bathroom quickly enough when she senses the need to urinate. She has normal mobility. Which of the following is most likely?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Urge incontinence, also known as overactive bladder, is characterized by a sudden and strong urge to urinate which is difficult to control. In this case, Mrs. LaFarge is unable to get to the bathroom quickly enough when she senses the need to urinate, which indicates a lack of control over the urge to urinate. This is typically caused by involuntary contractions of the bladder muscle. Stress incontinence, on the other hand, is leakage of urine during activities that increase intra-abdominal pressure, such as coughing or exercising. Overflow incontinence is characterized by urinary retention and constant dribbling of urine due to the bladder being unable to empty properly. Functional incontinence occurs when a person has normal bladder control but is unable to reach the bathroom in time due to physical or cognitive impairments. Since Mrs. LaFarge is experiencing a sudden and strong urge to urinate that she cannot
Question 3 of 5
An elderly woman with a history of coronary bypass comes in with severe, diffuse, abdominal pain. Strangely, during your examination, the pain is not made worse by pressing on the abdomen. What do you suspect?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In an elderly woman with a history of coronary bypass surgery presenting with severe, diffuse abdominal pain that is not worsened by abdominal palpation, neuropathy should be suspected. Neuropathy refers to nerve damage, which can result in abnormal sensations of pain, often described as burning, shooting, or stabbing. Abdominal neuropathy can be caused by various conditions such as diabetes, alcohol abuse, vitamin deficiencies, or certain medications. The absence of worsening pain upon palpation makes organic abdominal pathology less likely, suggesting a neuropathic etiology. In this case, further evaluation and testing for neuropathy would be warranted.
Question 4 of 5
Which area of the arm drains to the epitrochlear nodes?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The area of the arm that drains to the epitrochlear nodes includes the ulnar surface of the forearm and hand, little and ring fingers, and the ulnar side of the middle finger. The epitrochlear nodes are located in the medial aspect of the arm above the elbow, close to the insertion of the biceps brachii muscle. These nodes receive lymphatic drainage from the above-mentioned areas and play a role in the immune response against infections in these regions.
Question 5 of 5
A 29-year-old married computer programmer comes to your clinic, complaining of "something strange" going on in his scrotum. Last month while he was doing his testicular self- examination he felt a lump in his left testis. He waited a month and felt the area again, but the lump was still there. He has had some aching in his left testis but denies any pain with urination or sexual intercourse. He denies any fever, malaise, or night sweats. His past medical history consists of groin surgery when he was a baby and a tonsillectomy as a teenager. He eats a healthy diet and works out at the gym five times a week. He denies any tobacco or illegal drugs and drinks alcohol occasionally. His parents are both healthy. On examination you see a muscular, healthy, young-appearing man with unremarkable vital signs. On visualization the penis is circumcised with no lesions; there is a scar in his right inguinal region. There is no lymphadenopathy. Palpation of his scrotum is unremarkable on the right but indicates a large mass on the left. Placing a finger through the inguinal ring on the right, you have the patient bear down. Nothing is felt. You attempt to place your finger through the left inguinal ring but cannot get above the mass. On rectal examination his prostate is unremarkable. What disorder of the testes is most likely the diagnosis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The most likely diagnosis in this case is a scrotal hernia. The patient's history of a previous groin surgery as a baby is a key clue, as it increases the risk for developing a hernia. The lump in the left testis with aching, along with the inability to palpate above the mass through the left inguinal ring, suggests that the lump may be a hernia protruding through the inguinal canal into the scrotum. The presence of a scar in the right inguinal region also supports the likelihood of a hernia. The normal prostate on rectal examination rules out any involvement of the prostate in the presentation. Scrotal hernias may present as painless masses in the scrotum, often increasing in size with activities that increase intra-abdominal pressure, such as straining or coughing. Surgical repair is often necessary to prevent complications such as incarceration or strangulation