ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Across the Lifespan Questions
Question 1 of 5
A patient is brought to the emergency department in a state of extreme, uncontrolled anxiety. Why would an IV (Intravenous) benzodiazepine be the drug of choice in this situation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In the scenario of a patient presenting with extreme, uncontrolled anxiety in the emergency department, the correct choice of using an IV benzodiazepine is supported by the fact that benzodiazepines have a rapid onset of action (Option A). This rapid onset is crucial in quickly alleviating the severe symptoms of anxiety and bringing the patient to a more stable state. Option B is incorrect because benzodiazepines do carry a risk of physical dependence, especially with prolonged or excessive use. Option C is incorrect as benzodiazepines do not cure anxiety disorders but rather provide symptomatic relief. Option D is incorrect as benzodiazepines primarily target anxiety symptoms and are not the first-line treatment for depression. Educationally, understanding the pharmacological properties of benzodiazepines, including their rapid onset of action and effectiveness in managing acute anxiety, is essential for healthcare providers, especially those working in emergency settings. This knowledge enables timely and appropriate intervention to address acute anxiety symptoms effectively and improve patient outcomes.
Question 2 of 5
All the statement is true EXCEPT:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C) Botulinum toxin causes respiratory paralysis by blocking the release of Norepinephrine (NE). This statement is false. Botulinum toxin works by blocking the release of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction, leading to muscle paralysis. Norepinephrine is not involved in this process. Option A is true because cholinergic receptors located at the neuromuscular junction are indeed nicotinic receptors. Option B is also true as norepinephrine, epinephrine, and dopamine are broken down by monoamine oxidase (MAO) and catechol-O-methyltransferase (COMT). Option D is incorrect because tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) and cocaine do not prevent norepinephrine from being pumped back into the cell. Instead, they work by blocking the reuptake of norepinephrine, leading to increased levels of the neurotransmitter in the synaptic cleft. In an educational context, understanding the mechanisms of action of various drugs and toxins is crucial for healthcare professionals to make informed decisions regarding patient care and medication management. This knowledge helps in prescribing appropriate treatments and managing potential adverse effects.
Question 3 of 5
A patient with chronic pain calls the provider’s office to request a refill on their oxycontin. Which action is most appropriate?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the most appropriate action is to choose option B: Schedule an appointment with the patient. This choice is crucial for several reasons. Firstly, scheduling an appointment allows the healthcare provider to assess the patient in person, evaluate their pain level, review their current medication regimen, and address any concerns or changes in their condition. This face-to-face interaction is essential for ensuring the patient's safety and well-being. Option A, faxing an order to the pharmacy, is not the most appropriate choice in this situation because it does not allow for a comprehensive evaluation of the patient's condition or medication needs. It is important to have a complete understanding of the patient's status before refilling a potent medication like Oxycontin. Option C, verifying the patient's adherence to the drug regimen, is an important step in managing chronic pain; however, it should not be the sole action taken when a patient requests a refill on a controlled substance like Oxycontin. A more thorough evaluation is necessary. Option D, determining the patient's current medication dosage, is also an important aspect of managing chronic pain; however, it is not sufficient on its own when a refill request is made. The dosage should be considered within the broader context of the patient's overall health and response to the medication. In an educational context, understanding the importance of a comprehensive assessment before refilling potent medications is crucial for ensuring patient safety and optimal pain management. By scheduling an appointment with the patient, healthcare providers can address any potential issues, adjust the treatment plan if needed, and provide the best possible care for the patient's chronic pain management.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is preparing to administer penicillin G intramuscularly to a child. The child’s parents ask why the drug cannot be given in an oral liquid form. What is the nurse’s reply?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rationale: The correct answer is D) This drug would be inactivated by enzymes in the stomach. Penicillin G is a beta-lactam antibiotic that is susceptible to degradation by gastric acid and enzymes in the stomach if taken orally. This is why it is usually administered parenterally (intramuscularly or intravenously) to ensure adequate absorption and therapeutic effect. Option A) This drug causes severe gastric upset if given orally is incorrect because the primary reason for not giving penicillin G orally is its inactivation by stomach enzymes, not gastric upset. Option B) This drug has a narrow therapeutic range, and the dose must be tightly controlled is incorrect as the route of administration is not determined by the drug's therapeutic range but rather by its pharmacokinetics. Option C) This drug is absorbed much too quickly in an oral form is also incorrect because rapid absorption would not be the main concern for penicillin G, rather its degradation in the stomach. Educationally, it's important for nurses to understand the rationale behind choosing specific routes of drug administration to ensure optimal therapeutic outcomes. By knowing the pharmacokinetics of drugs like penicillin G, nurses can make informed decisions and educate patients and families effectively.
Question 5 of 5
A patient is being discharged after surgery. During the admission history, the nurse learned that the patient normally consumes two or three glasses of wine each day. The prescriber has ordered hydrocodone with acetaminophen [Lortab] for pain. What will the nurse do?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is C: Tell the patient not to drink wine while taking Lortab. This is the appropriate course of action because both alcohol and Lortab (hydrocodone with acetaminophen) are central nervous system depressants. Consuming alcohol while taking Lortab can increase the risk of side effects such as dizziness, drowsiness, respiratory depression, and impaired cognitive function. Therefore, it is crucial to advise the patient to avoid alcohol while on this medication to prevent potential harm or adverse reactions. Option A, requesting an order for acetaminophen without hydrocodone, is incorrect because the issue lies in the combination of Lortab with alcohol, not specifically with hydrocodone. Option B, suggesting ibuprofen for pain, is also incorrect as it does not address the interaction between alcohol and Lortab. Option D, telling the patient to limit wine intake to one or two glasses per day, is not advisable because any amount of alcohol can still potentiate the effects of Lortab and increase the risk of adverse reactions. Educationally, this scenario highlights the importance of understanding drug interactions and the need for patient education regarding medication use. Nurses must be knowledgeable about potential interactions between medications and substances like alcohol to ensure patient safety and optimal outcomes. It also underscores the critical role nurses play in providing clear and accurate instructions to patients regarding their medication regimens.