ATI RN
Foundations and Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
A patient is brought to the emergency department experiencing a possible stroke. What initial diagnostic test for a stroke , usually performed in the emergency department would the nurse prepare the patient for?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In the emergency department setting, the initial diagnostic test typically performed for a patient suspected of having a stroke is a noncontrast computed tomography (CT) scan of the head. This imaging study is crucial in evaluating and diagnosing stroke because it can quickly identify whether the person is having a hemorrhagic stroke (bleeding in the brain) or an ischemic stroke (blood clot blocking a blood vessel). The results of the CT scan help guide immediate treatment decisions, such as administering clot-busting medications for ischemic strokes or preparing for surgical interventions for hemorrhagic strokes. Carotid ultrasound studies and transcranial Doppler flow studies may be performed after the initial CT scan to further assess the extent of damage and the underlying cause of the stroke. The 12-lead electrocardiogram is useful in assessing the heart's electrical activity but is not the primary test for diagnosing stroke.
Question 2 of 5
A patient admitted to the ICU develops acute myocardial infarction (MI) with ST-segment elevation on electrocardiogram (ECG). What intervention should the healthcare team prioritize to manage the patient's MI?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In a patient with acute myocardial infarction (MI) presenting with ST-segment elevation on ECG, the healthcare team should prioritize performing emergent coronary angiography for revascularization. This intervention, also known as primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI), involves opening up the blocked coronary artery responsible for the MI. Timely reperfusion of the affected artery is crucial in reducing myocardial damage and improving outcomes in acute MI patients. PCI is considered the preferred method for revascularization in patients with ST-segment elevation MI, as it has been shown to be more effective and associated with better outcomes compared to fibrinolytic therapy.
Question 3 of 5
A patient with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) demonstrates a positive antinuclear antibody (ANA) test and elevated levels of anti-double-stranded DNA (anti-dsDNA) antibodies. Which of the following mechanisms is most likely responsible for the production of these autoantibodies?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The development of autoantibodies such as antinuclear antibodies (ANA) and anti-double-stranded DNA (anti-dsDNA) antibodies in systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is primarily attributed to a loss of self-tolerance. Self-tolerance refers to the immune system's ability to recognize and differentiate self-antigens from foreign antigens. In individuals with SLE, there is a breakdown in immune tolerance mechanisms, leading to the production of autoantibodies against self-antigens like nuclear components (e.g., DNA, RNA, histones). This loss of self-tolerance results in the immune system targeting and attacking its tissues, leading to the systemic inflammation and tissue damage characteristic of SLE. The presence of elevated levels of ANA and anti-dsDNA antibodies in this patient suggests an autoimmune response against nuclear material, further supporting the role of self-tolerance breakdown in SLE
Question 4 of 5
A patient with a history of Hodgkin lymphoma presents with fever, chills, and generalized malaise. Laboratory tests reveal pancytopenia, circulating Reed-Sternberg cells, and bone marrow involvement. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause these findings?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The patient is presenting with symptoms and laboratory findings consistent with a paraneoplastic syndrome related to Hodgkin lymphoma. In this case, the fever, chills, generalized malaise, pancytopenia, circulating Reed-Sternberg cells, and bone marrow involvement are all indicative of a paraneoplastic syndrome associated with Hodgkin lymphoma. Paraneoplastic syndromes are a group of disorders that are triggered by an abnormal immune response to a neoplasm, such as Hodgkin lymphoma, leading to various systemic manifestations.
Question 5 of 5
While positioning the patient for surgery, the nurse notices that the patient's skin is not adequately protected from pressure injuries. What should the nurse do?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The nurse should reposition the patient to alleviate pressure on vulnerable areas. Pressure injuries can develop when there is prolonged pressure on specific areas of the skin, leading to reduced blood flow and tissue damage. Repositioning the patient helps to relieve the pressure and prevent the development of pressure injuries. Applying a pressure-relieving device may also be helpful, but the immediate action should be to reposition the patient to address the issue. Documenting the observation is important for documentation purposes, but the priority is to take action to prevent harm to the patient. Continuing with the positioning as planned without addressing the inadequate skin protection could lead to the development of pressure injuries, which should be avoided.
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