ATI RN
Nursing Process Test Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient is being taught the action of digoxin, which is an inotropic agent. The nurse defines an inotropic agent as a medication that has which of the following actions?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Strengthens heart contraction. Digoxin is an inotropic agent that works by increasing the force of the heart's contractions. This leads to improved cardiac output and helps manage conditions like heart failure. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because digoxin does not decrease heart rate, increase conduction time, or increase heart rate. It specifically targets the strength of the heart's contractions, making option D the most appropriate choice. This action of digoxin is crucial in improving the efficiency of the heart's pumping function.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the following illustrates a common error when writing client outcomes?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because it does not provide a specific, measurable outcome. It is vague and subjective, making it difficult to assess and track progress. In contrast, choices A, B, and D are all specific, measurable, and time-bound goals, making them more effective for evaluating client outcomes. Choice A specifies the amount of fluid intake and the time frame, choice B sets a clear deadline for demonstrating a skill, and choice D outlines a specific task to be completed upon discharge. Therefore, C is the correct answer as it lacks the clear criteria needed for effective outcome evaluation.
Question 3 of 9
Why should the nurse closely monitor older adults when they are receiving IV therapy? Choose all that apply
Correct Answer: E
Rationale: The correct answer is not provided in the choices. However, if I were to choose from the given options, the most appropriate would be C: "Because they are prone to reduced renal efficiency." This is important because older adults may have decreased kidney function, leading to potential complications with IV therapy. Option A is incorrect as defense mechanisms are not directly related to monitoring IV therapy. Option B is incorrect as fluid overload is a general concern with IV therapy regardless of age. Option D is irrelevant to the need for monitoring IV therapy in older adults.
Question 4 of 9
When performing a neurological examination on Mr. RR, which of the following would not be considered an important or useful part of the examination?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because pupil size is not typically a part of a routine neurological examination. A: Eye movements are assessed to evaluate cranial nerve functions. B: Reflexes help determine the integrity of the spinal cord and peripheral nervous system. C: Nuchal rigidity is important to assess for signs of meningitis or other neurological conditions. In contrast, pupil size is more relevant in ophthalmological examinations or when assessing response to specific medications affecting the pupil size.
Question 5 of 9
What is the nurse’s firstaction?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. First, reviewing lab results for potassium level is important in assessing potential electrolyte imbalances that may contribute to the patient's symptoms. This allows for a comprehensive understanding of the patient's condition. Assessing the patient for other symptoms or problems is crucial to gather additional information. Finally, notifying the healthcare provider ensures timely communication and collaboration for appropriate care. Choice A is incorrect as following a clinical protocol for a stroke is premature without a comprehensive assessment. Choice C is incorrect as administering medication without a thorough assessment and provider notification can be dangerous. Choice D is incorrect as notifying the healthcare provider should precede administering any medication.
Question 6 of 9
A nurse performs an assessment of a client in a long-term care facility and records baseline data. The nurse reassesses the client a month later and makes revisions in the plan of care. What type of assessment is the second assessment?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Time-lapsed assessment. This type of assessment involves comparing baseline data with new data collected at a later time to evaluate changes in the client's condition. In this scenario, the nurse is reassessing the client a month later to determine if there have been any changes that require adjustments to the care plan. A: Comprehensive assessment is an in-depth assessment done initially to gather detailed information about the client's overall health status. B: Focused assessment is done to gather specific information related to a particular problem or issue. D: Emergency assessment is performed in urgent situations to quickly identify and address life-threatening conditions.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse should expect a client with hypothyroidism to report which health concerns?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. In hypothyroidism, the thyroid gland is underactive, leading to symptoms like puffiness of the face and hands due to fluid retention. This occurs as a result of decreased metabolism. Options A and B are symptoms of hyperthyroidism, where the thyroid gland is overactive. Option D is a symptom of goiter, which is thyroid gland swelling, not specific to hypothyroidism. Therefore, the correct answer is C based on the characteristic symptoms of hypothyroidism.
Question 8 of 9
One of the side effects of INH administration is peripheral neuropathy. To prevent this effect, Nurse Carlos teaches Andrew to:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. INH (Isoniazid) can lead to peripheral neuropathy due to vitamin B6 deficiency. 2. Pyridoxine is vitamin B6, which helps prevent neuropathy. 3. Supplementing with pyridoxine can counteract the deficiency caused by INH. 4. Thus, option C, supplementing the diet with pyridoxine, is the correct choice. Summary: - Option A is incorrect as a low cholesterol diet does not address the vitamin B6 deficiency. - Option B is incorrect as excessive bed rest does not prevent neuropathy. - Option D is incorrect as sun exposure is not related to the prevention of peripheral neuropathy.
Question 9 of 9
A client with vaginal cancer asks the nurse, “What is the usual treatment for this type of cancer?” Which treatment should the nurse name?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Surgery. Surgery is the primary treatment for vaginal cancer, especially for early-stage cases. It involves removing the cancerous tissue from the vagina. Radiation (B) and chemotherapy (C) may also be used in addition to surgery in some cases, but they are not the primary treatment. Immunotherapy (D) is not a standard treatment for vaginal cancer. It is important to prioritize surgery as it directly targets and removes the cancerous cells from the affected area, increasing the chances of successful treatment and recovery.