A patient is being taught the action of digoxin, which is an inotropic agent. The nurse defines an inotropic agent as a medication that has which of the following actions?

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Question 1 of 9

A patient is being taught the action of digoxin, which is an inotropic agent. The nurse defines an inotropic agent as a medication that has which of the following actions?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Strengthens heart contraction. Digoxin is an inotropic agent that works by increasing the force of the heart's contractions. This leads to improved cardiac output and helps manage conditions like heart failure. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because digoxin does not decrease heart rate, increase conduction time, or increase heart rate. It specifically targets the strength of the heart's contractions, making option D the most appropriate choice. This action of digoxin is crucial in improving the efficiency of the heart's pumping function.

Question 2 of 9

The nurse begins a shift assessment by examining a surgical dressing that is saturated with serosanguineous drainage on a patient who had open abdominal surgery yesterday (or 1 day ago). Which type of assessment approach is the nurse using?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: General to specific assessment. In this scenario, the nurse is starting with a broad assessment of the surgical dressing and the type of drainage present, then will progress to more specific assessments based on the findings. This approach allows for a systematic and comprehensive evaluation of the patient's condition by moving from general observations to detailed examinations. Explanation: 1. General assessment: The nurse is initially assessing the overall appearance of the surgical dressing and the type of drainage. 2. Specific assessment: Based on the initial findings, the nurse will proceed to conduct more focused assessments, such as checking for signs of infection, monitoring vital signs, and assessing the surgical site for any complications. Other choices are incorrect: A: Gordon’s Functional Health Patterns - This framework focuses on assessing different aspects of an individual's health patterns, such as activity level, sleep patterns, and coping mechanisms. It is not the most appropriate approach in this situation. B: Activity-exercise pattern assessment - This type of assessment focuses

Question 3 of 9

The nurse should expect a client with hypothyroidism to report which health concerns?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. In hypothyroidism, the thyroid gland is underactive, leading to symptoms like puffiness of the face and hands due to fluid retention. This occurs as a result of decreased metabolism. Options A and B are symptoms of hyperthyroidism, where the thyroid gland is overactive. Option D is a symptom of goiter, which is thyroid gland swelling, not specific to hypothyroidism. Therefore, the correct answer is C based on the characteristic symptoms of hypothyroidism.

Question 4 of 9

Clients with myastherda gravis, Guillain - Barre Syndrome or amyothrophic sclerosis experience:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Increased risk of respiratory complications. Clients with myasthenia gravis, Guillain-Barre Syndrome, or amyotrophic lateral sclerosis all experience muscle weakness, including respiratory muscles, leading to a higher risk of respiratory complications such as difficulty breathing or respiratory failure. This is due to the involvement of the neuromuscular system in these conditions. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not directly correlate with the respiratory complications commonly seen in these specific neuromuscular disorders.

Question 5 of 9

Which of the ff. would the nurse explain to a patient is the main purpose of a hearing aid?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Improve ability to hear. A hearing aid is designed to improve a person's ability to hear by amplifying sound. This helps individuals with hearing loss to better understand speech and sounds in their environment. A: Amplifying background noise is not the main purpose of a hearing aid. It may actually hinder the user's ability to focus on important sounds. B: Amplifying musical sounds is not the primary function of a hearing aid. The main focus is on improving speech understanding. C: Occluding the ear is not the purpose of a hearing aid. It is meant to enhance hearing, not block sound.

Question 6 of 9

A hospitalized client has the following blood lab values: WBC 3,000/ul, RBC 5.0 (X 106), platelets 300, 000, what would be a priority nursing intervention?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Preventing infection. With a low WBC count of 3,000/ul, the client is at high risk for infection due to compromised immune function. Priority is to prevent infection by implementing strict infection control measures, such as hand hygiene, sterile techniques, and isolation precautions. Alleviating pain (B) would be important but not the priority in this case. Controlling infection (C) is similar to preventing infection and would be a secondary intervention. Monitoring blood transfusion reactions (D) is not relevant to the client's current lab values.

Question 7 of 9

Which iron-rich foods should the nurse encourage an anemic client requiring iron therapy to eat?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D (Lamb and peaches) because lamb is a good source of heme iron, which is more easily absorbed by the body compared to non-heme iron found in plant-based foods. Peaches are high in vitamin C, which enhances iron absorption. Shrimp and tomatoes (A) have some iron but are not as rich in iron as lamb. Cheese and bananas (B) are not significant sources of iron. Lobster and squash (C) also do not provide as much iron as lamb. Overall, the combination of heme iron from lamb and vitamin C from peaches makes them the most suitable choices for an anemic client requiring iron therapy.

Question 8 of 9

After receiving a dose of penicillin, a client develops dyspnea and hypotension. The nurse suspects the client is experiencing anaphylactic shock. What should the nurse do first?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Administering epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylactic shock to reverse hypotension and bronchoconstriction. Intubation may be necessary if airway compromise occurs despite epinephrine. Paging an anesthesiologist (A) is not the priority. Administering penicillin antidote (C) is not indicated in anaphylaxis. Inserting a urinary catheter and infusing IV fluids (D) may be necessary later but not the priority in managing anaphylactic shock.

Question 9 of 9

The most likely cause of her chief complaint this morning is

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because polyuria is a common complication of hypophysectomy, the surgical removal of the pituitary gland. The pituitary gland plays a crucial role in regulating water balance in the body, and its removal can lead to excessive urine production. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because a decrease in stress does not typically cause polyuria, diabetes mellitus is not an immediate complication of surgery, and polyuria is not an expected result of pituitary gland removal.

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