ATI RN
Nursing Process Test Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient is being taught the action of digoxin, which is an inotropic agent. The nurse defines an inotropic agent as a medication that has which of the following actions?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Strengthens heart contraction. Digoxin is an inotropic agent that works by increasing the force of the heart's contractions. This leads to improved cardiac output and helps manage conditions like heart failure. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because digoxin does not decrease heart rate, increase conduction time, or increase heart rate. It specifically targets the strength of the heart's contractions, making option D the most appropriate choice. This action of digoxin is crucial in improving the efficiency of the heart's pumping function.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the following settings is most therapeutic for an agitated head-injured patient?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A semiprivate room with one or two consistent caregivers is the most therapeutic setting for an agitated head-injured patient. Here's the rationale: 1. Consistency: Having one or two consistent caregivers provides the patient with a stable and familiar environment, which can help reduce agitation. 2. Privacy: A semiprivate room offers more privacy compared to a day room or a ward, which can help minimize external stimuli and promote relaxation. 3. Individualized care: In a semiprivate room, caregivers can focus more on the specific needs of the patient, leading to better management of agitation. 4. Reduced distractions: Being in a semiprivate room minimizes distractions and noise, which can be overwhelming for an agitated head-injured patient. Summary: A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not offer the same level of consistency, privacy, individualized care, and reduced distractions as a semiprivate room with one
Question 3 of 9
Which of the following data regarding a client with a diagnosis of colon cancer are subjective?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because subjective data refers to information reported by the client, such as their symptoms or feelings. In this case, the client experiencing nausea and loss of appetite due to chemotherapy is subjective as it is based on the client's personal experience and perception. Choice B is incorrect because the client becoming teary is an observable behavior, making it an objective data point. Choice C is incorrect as the amount of effluent from the ileostomy is a measurable and quantifiable data, making it objective. Choice D is also incorrect as the patient's unwillingness to manipulate or empty his ostomy bag is an observable behavior, not based on the client's report.
Question 4 of 9
A patient is admitted with a 2-month history of fatigue, SOB, pallor, and dizziness. The patient is diagnosed with idiopathic autoimmune haemolytic anemia. On reviewing the laboratory results, the nurse notes which of the following that confirms this diagnosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: RBC fragments. In idiopathic autoimmune hemolytic anemia, the immune system attacks and destroys red blood cells, leading to hemolysis. The presence of RBC fragments in the blood smear confirms this diagnosis as it indicates mechanical damage to RBCs. Explanation: 1. RBC fragments (schistocytes) are a hallmark of hemolysis, seen in conditions like autoimmune hemolytic anemia. 2. Microcytic, hypochromic RBCs (Choice B) are typically seen in iron deficiency anemia, not autoimmune hemolytic anemia. 3. Macrocytic, normochromic RBCs (Choice C) are characteristic of megaloblastic anemias like vitamin B12 deficiency, not autoimmune hemolytic anemia. 4. Hemoglobin molecules (Choice D) are not directly indicative of autoimmune hemolytic anemia; the presence of free hemoglobin in the blood would suggest intrav
Question 5 of 9
One of the side effects of INH administration is peripheral neuropathy. To prevent this effect, Nurse Carlos teaches Andrew to:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. INH (Isoniazid) can lead to peripheral neuropathy due to vitamin B6 deficiency. 2. Pyridoxine is vitamin B6, which helps prevent neuropathy. 3. Supplementing with pyridoxine can counteract the deficiency caused by INH. 4. Thus, option C, supplementing the diet with pyridoxine, is the correct choice. Summary: - Option A is incorrect as a low cholesterol diet does not address the vitamin B6 deficiency. - Option B is incorrect as excessive bed rest does not prevent neuropathy. - Option D is incorrect as sun exposure is not related to the prevention of peripheral neuropathy.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the ff nursing interventions ensure that a client with Hodgkin’s disease remains free of infection? Choose all that apply
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: C: Practice conscientious hand washing is correct as it helps prevent the spread of infection. Proper hand hygiene is essential in reducing the risk of infection transmission to the client with Hodgkin's disease. A: Apply ice to the skin for brief periods is incorrect as it does not directly relate to preventing infection in the client. B: Provide cool sponge baths is incorrect as it mainly addresses comfort and hygiene but does not specifically target infection prevention. D: Use cotton gloves Restrict visitors or personnel with infections from contact with the client is incorrect because while using gloves can help prevent the spread of infection, restricting visitors with infections is not under the direct control of the nurse. Summary: Practicing conscientious hand washing is crucial in preventing infection in a client with Hodgkin's disease, while the other choices do not directly address infection control in this context.
Question 7 of 9
Which common side effect of metolazone (Zaroxolyn) should the nurse instruct a patient to report to the health- care provider?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Muscle weakness. Metolazone is a diuretic that can lead to low potassium levels, causing muscle weakness. Instructing the patient to report muscle weakness is crucial to prevent any potential serious complications. Numb hands, gastrointestinal distress, and nightmares are not commonly associated with metolazone and do not pose as immediate risks as muscle weakness does. It is essential to prioritize the most critical side effect to ensure the patient's safety and well-being.
Question 8 of 9
A client who is scheduled for a parathyroidectomy is worried about having to wear a scarf around his neck after surgery. What nursing diagnosis should the nurse document in the care plan?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Disturbed body image related to the incision scar. This is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis as the client's concern about wearing a scarf around his neck post-surgery indicates a potential disturbance in body image. This diagnosis addresses the client's emotional response to physical changes, which is common in surgical patients. Choice A is incorrect because impaired physical mobility is not directly related to the client's worry about wearing a scarf. Choice B is incorrect as ineffective denial does not directly address the client's specific concern about body image. Choice D is also incorrect as the risk of injury is not the primary issue in this scenario; it is more about the client's perception of their appearance post-surgery. In summary, the client's worry about wearing a scarf post-surgery indicates a disturbance in body image, making choice C the most appropriate nursing diagnosis.
Question 9 of 9
A client who is receiving cyclosporine (Sandimmune) must practice good oral hygiene, including regular brushing and flossing of the teeth, to minimize gingival hyperplasia during long-term therapy with certain drugs. Which of the following drug falls into this category?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Phenytoin (Dilantin). Phenytoin is known to cause gingival hyperplasia as a side effect, which can be minimized with good oral hygiene practices. Procainamide, Azathioprine, and Allopurinol are not associated with gingival hyperplasia. Therefore, the client receiving cyclosporine should focus on practicing good oral hygiene specifically when taking Phenytoin to minimize the risk of developing gingival hyperplasia.