ATI RN
Pharmacology Practice Exam ATI Questions
Question 1 of 5
A patient is being counseled for possible participation in a clinical trial for a new medication. After the patient meets with the physician, the nurse is asked to obtain the patient's signature on the consent forms. The nurse knows that this 'informed consent' indicates which of the following?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Informed consent is a legal and ethical requirement that ensures the patient understands the purpose, procedures, risks, benefits, and alternatives of participating in a clinical trial. The patient must be fully informed before agreeing to participate, and they have the right to withdraw at any time. The consent process does not prevent the patient from suing for damages if harm occurs, nor does it withhold information to ensure the trial's success. Therefore, the nurse's role is to confirm that the patient has received all necessary information and voluntarily agrees to participate.
Question 2 of 5
A 38-year-old man with hypertension experiences a first ever attack of acute pain, redness and tenderness in the left first metatarsophalangeal joint ('podagra'). His medication is furosemide, calcium carbonate and irbesartan. Serum uric acid is 0.78 mmol/L (upper limit of normal for men 0.48 mmol/L). Which of the following is most appropriate pharmacotherapy?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Acute gout (podagra) requires rapid inflammation relief. Paracetamol offers analgesia but no anti-inflammatory effect, inadequate here. Aspirin, at low doses, retains uric acid, worsening gout; at high doses, it's uricosuric but not ideal acutely. Probenecid lowers uric acid long-term, not for acute attacks. Allopurinol prevents gout but can precipitate attacks if started now. Diclofenac, an NSAID, reduces inflammation and pain fast, the most appropriate acute treatment. Its efficacy targets gout's pathophysiology, critical for symptom control.
Question 3 of 5
Haloperidol:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Haloperidol, a typical antipsychotic, causes hypotension less than phenothiazines, so that's not its hallmark. It's highly prone to extrapyramidal side effects (EPS) like dystonia due to strong D2 receptor blockade, a true statement. Arrhythmias (e.g., QT prolongation) occur but aren't its primary issue. Antimuscarinic effects are minimal compared to other antipsychotics. Confusion is possible but not its defining toxicity. EPS prominence drives the need for adjunctive anticholinergics in treatment, a key consideration in schizophrenia management.
Question 4 of 5
The newly licensed nurse is preparing to administer a high dose of androgen to the female client. The nurse manager asks for the rationale. What is the best response by the new nurse?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: High-dose androgens in females are used palliatively for certain breast cancers, especially hormone-sensitive ones, to suppress estrogen-driven tumor growth, easing symptoms in advanced disease. Athletic performance enhancement via androgens, while feasible, isn't clinically indicated and is illegal in regulated contexts. Brain cancer lacks evidence for androgen treatment, as it doesn't target neurological tumors. Sexual reassignment uses testosterone for masculinization, but high doses in clinical settings typically tie to cancer care, not transition. Breast cancer aligns with a recognized therapeutic use, leveraging androgens' anti-estrogenic effects, making it the most valid clinical rationale here.
Question 5 of 5
A patient looks up the drug he is taking in a drug guide. The patient asks the nurse why the physician prescribed a medication that has a lethal dose measure. What is the best response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Lethal dose (e.g., LD50) from research guides safe dosing by showing toxicity thresholds, reassuring the patient it informs, not dictates, prescription. It's not just research trivia-doctors use it indirectly. Side effect watching doesn't explain it. Deferring to the doctor avoids education. Research value ties to safety, clarifying its relevance.