ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Study Guide PDF Questions
Question 1 of 5
A patient is beginning isoniazid and rifampin treatment for tuberculosis. The nurse gives the patient which instruction?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Adherence to the prescribed regimen is critical in tuberculosis treatment to prevent resistance and ensure efficacy. Skipping doses can lead to treatment failure and drug-resistant TB. Isoniazid and rifampin are typically taken once daily, not three times daily. Antacids can interfere with the absorption of these drugs and should be avoided. There is no specific requirement to take rifampin initially; both drugs should be taken as prescribed.
Question 2 of 5
Albuterol can be given in all but which of these forms:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Albuterol is typically administered through inhalation as an aerosol or nebulized solution to provide quick relief of bronchospasm in conditions such as asthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. It can also be administered intravenously in emergency situations for severe bronchospasm or anaphylaxis. Albuterol is not formulated as an extended-release oral medication due to the need for rapid onset of action in managing acute bronchospasm.
Question 3 of 5
A mother brings her 4-year-old son to the emergency department after discovering him eating her iron supplement. Which of the following should be administered to chelate the excess iron in his body?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Iron overdose in a child requires a specific chelator. Deferoxamine binds ferric iron, forming ferrioxamine, excreted renally. EDTA chelates calcium and lead, not iron-specific. Dimercaprol treats heavy metals like arsenic, not iron. Penicillamine is for copper (Wilson's disease). Succimer (E) targets lead. Deferoxamine's high affinity for iron makes it standard for acute toxicity, preventing organ damage (e.g., liver, heart), critical in this pediatric emergency.
Question 4 of 5
A 31-year-old male patient has been prescribed propranolol to reduce and prevent angina. What will the nurse assess this patient for related to the medication? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Adverse effects of propranolol that the nurse would assess for include allergic reaction, bradycardia, heart failure, cardiac arrhythmias, cerebrovascular accident, pulmonary edema, gastric pain, flatulence, impotence, decreased exercise tolerance, and bronchospasm. The nurse should monitor for these adverse effects and intervene as needed to ensure patient safety.
Question 5 of 5
Which assessment should the nurse prioritize for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN)?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When a client receives total parenteral nutrition (TPN), monitoring blood glucose levels is critical due to the high glucose content in TPN solutions, which can lead to hyperglycemia. This condition arises because TPN delivers concentrated nutrients directly into the bloodstream, bypassing the digestive system, and the body may struggle to regulate sugar levels effectively without proper insulin response. Potassium levels, while important in overall electrolyte balance, are less immediately impacted by TPN compared to glucose, as potassium imbalances typically develop over time rather than acutely from TPN initiation. Mental status assessments are valuable for neurological conditions but lack direct relevance to TPN's metabolic effects. Similarly, blood pressure monitoring is essential for cardiovascular health but isn't the primary concern with TPN, as it doesn't directly influence hypertension or hypotension in the same way glucose dysregulation does. The focus on glucose stems from its rapid impact on the client's metabolic state, making it the priority assessment to prevent complications like hyperglycemia, which can escalate to severe outcomes if unaddressed. Regular monitoring ensures timely intervention, aligning with TPN's nutritional goals.