A patient is at the clinic to have her blood pressure checkeShe has been coming to the clinic weekly since her medications were changed 2 months ago. The nurse should:

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Question 1 of 9

A patient is at the clinic to have her blood pressure checkeShe has been coming to the clinic weekly since her medications were changed 2 months ago. The nurse should:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Collecting a follow-up database ensures up-to-date information. 2. It allows for monitoring of medication effectiveness and any new symptoms. 3. Checking the blood pressure is essential but needs current context. 4. Asking the patient to read her record may not provide all necessary updates. 5. The complete health history is crucial but obtaining it first may delay urgent blood pressure check.

Question 2 of 9

The nurse is conducting a physical assessment. The data the nurse would collect vary depending on what?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step 1: The nurse should prioritize collecting data based on the client's acuity to address immediate needs and ensure patient safety. Step 2: Acuity determines the urgency and intensity of care required, guiding the assessment focus. Step 3: Time available or client cooperation may influence the depth of assessment but do not dictate the data collected. Step 4: The onset of symptoms is important for history-taking but not the primary factor in determining assessment data.

Question 3 of 9

When observing a patient's verbal and nonverbal communication, the nurse notices a discrepancy. Which of the following statements about this situation is true?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because asking someone who knows the patient well can provide valuable insight into the meaning behind the verbal and nonverbal communication discrepancy. This helps in understanding the context and potential reasons for the inconsistency. Option A is incorrect as ignoring nonverbal behaviors can lead to missing important cues. Option C of interpreting messages as an 'average' may oversimplify the complexity of communication. Option D is incorrect as while nonverbal behaviors can provide valuable information, solely focusing on them may not give a complete understanding of the situation.

Question 4 of 9

What should be the nurse's first action when caring for a client who has a suspected stroke?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Assess the client's airway. This is the first action because airway patency is the top priority in any emergency situation, including a suspected stroke. Ensuring the client can breathe effectively is crucial to prevent hypoxia and further complications. Administering oxygen (choice B) may be necessary after assessing the airway. Administering aspirin (choice C) should be done after a definitive diagnosis of an ischemic stroke. Performing a CT scan (choice D) is important for diagnosis but is not the first action to take in a suspected stroke scenario.

Question 5 of 9

What is the most effective treatment for a client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer oxygen. ARDS is characterized by severe hypoxemia, and oxygen therapy is essential to improve oxygenation. Administering corticosteroids (B) is not recommended as they do not improve outcomes in ARDS. Monitoring serum glucose (C) is unrelated to the treatment of ARDS. Administering pain relief (D) is important for patient comfort but does not address the underlying hypoxemia in ARDS. Oxygen therapy is the primary treatment to support respiratory function and improve oxygen delivery in ARDS.

Question 6 of 9

Which client must avoid foods high in potassium?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A client with renal disease must avoid foods high in potassium to prevent hyperkalemia, as the kidneys are unable to properly filter and excrete potassium. Foods high in potassium can lead to dangerous levels of potassium in the blood, which can be life-threatening for individuals with renal disease. Choice A is incorrect because a client receiving diuretic therapy may actually need to increase their potassium intake due to the potassium-wasting effects of diuretics. Choice B is incorrect as having an ileostomy does not necessarily affect potassium levels. Choice C is incorrect because clients with metabolic alkalosis may actually benefit from consuming foods high in potassium to help correct the acid-base imbalance.

Question 7 of 9

A nurse is assessing a patient who has a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following findings would be most concerning?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Shortness of breath and chest pain. This is most concerning because it could indicate a pulmonary embolism, a serious complication of DVT where a blood clot travels to the lungs. Shortness of breath and chest pain are signs of compromised respiratory and cardiac function. A: Pain and swelling in the leg are common symptoms of DVT but not as concerning as symptoms of a pulmonary embolism. B: Redness and warmth around the affected area are typical signs of inflammation associated with DVT but do not indicate a life-threatening complication like a pulmonary embolism. D: Pale skin and decreased pulse in the affected leg could be signs of compromised circulation due to DVT, but they are not as immediately life-threatening as symptoms of a pulmonary embolism.

Question 8 of 9

What is the best way to assess a client's nutritional status?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Monitoring serum albumin levels. This is because serum albumin is a protein synthesized by the liver that reflects long-term protein intake and overall nutritional status. Low levels indicate malnutrition or inflammation. Obtaining a dietary history (choice A) is important but may not always reflect the actual nutritional status. Monitoring weight (choice C) is helpful but may not provide a comprehensive view of the client's nutritional status. Providing a meal plan (choice D) is a proactive approach but does not directly assess the client's current nutritional status.

Question 9 of 9

What should a nurse assess for in a client with an arteriovenous fistula for hemodialysis?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Inspect for visible pulsation. This is because an arteriovenous fistula for hemodialysis should have a visible pulsation, indicating proper blood flow. Palpating for thrill (B) and auscultating for bruit (C) are also common assessments for an arteriovenous fistula, but inspecting for visible pulsation is the most direct and reliable way to assess the patency of the fistula. Percussing for dullness (D) is not relevant in this context as it does not provide information about the vascular access site.

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