ATI RN
Cardiovascular Test Bank Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
A patient is admitted with and ST segment myocardial infarction. The patient's wife overhears the physician talking about this and asks you, the nurse, what the physician means by this type of heart attack. The nurse's BEST response would include
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because an ST segment myocardial infarction signifies a full-thickness heart attack causing death of heart muscle through all three layers. This type of MI is serious and can lead to significant complications. Explanation for why other choices are incorrect: A: This answer is incorrect because the permanency of changes on the ECG does not fully explain the severity or extent of the heart attack. B: This answer is incorrect because describing a smaller MI that only affects part of the heart wall does not accurately represent an ST segment myocardial infarction. D: This answer is incorrect because it confuses the absence of elevated cardiac markers with the severity of the heart attack, which is not a reliable indicator of the extent of damage in an ST segment myocardial infarction.
Question 2 of 5
What is the appropriate priority nursing intervention?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because low potassium levels can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity. By checking the digoxin level, the nurse can ensure the patient's safety and prevent potential complications. Option A is incorrect as monitoring is necessary regardless of the level. Option B is incorrect as administering potassium without assessing the digoxin level can be dangerous. Option D is incorrect as stopping digoxin abruptly can lead to adverse effects. In summary, option C is the most appropriate intervention to ensure patient safety and prevent complications.
Question 3 of 5
The client is receiving a beta agonist. What adverse effect should the nurse look out for?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hyperglycemia. Beta agonists can stimulate the release of glucose from the liver, leading to increased blood sugar levels. The nurse should monitor for signs of hyperglycemia such as increased thirst, frequent urination, and fatigue. Incorrect answers: A: Hypoglycemia is not a common adverse effect of beta agonists as they typically raise blood sugar levels. C: Muscle weakness is not directly associated with beta agonist use. D: Paresthesias (tingling or numbness) are not typically linked to beta agonist administration.
Question 4 of 5
The client is on a Class II anti-arrhythmic agent. What is one of these drugs?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Sodium channel blocker. Class II anti-arrhythmic agents primarily target beta blockers. These drugs work by blocking sodium channels, which helps in controlling irregular heart rhythms. Calcium channel blockers (choice A) and ACE inhibitors (choice D) do not belong to Class II anti-arrhythmic agents. Beta blockers (choice B) are Class II anti-arrhythmic agents, but the question asks for the specific drug class within Class II, which is sodium channel blockers.
Question 5 of 5
The client has hypertension and is being treated with an ACE inhibitor. What vital signs would trigger the release of renin from the kidneys?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B (BP of 145/95). When the blood pressure is elevated, the kidneys sense a decrease in perfusion pressure and trigger the release of renin to increase blood pressure. A low blood pressure of 70/40 (choice A) would not stimulate renin release as it is too low. The pulse rate (choices C & D) does not directly trigger the release of renin.