A patient is admitted with a suspected myocardial infarction. Which cardiac biomarker is most specific for myocardial injury?

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Foundations and Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

A patient is admitted with a suspected myocardial infarction. Which cardiac biomarker is most specific for myocardial injury?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Troponin is the most specific cardiac biomarker for myocardial injury. Troponin I and Troponin T are proteins released into the bloodstream when there is damage to the heart muscle, making them highly indicative of myocardial infarction. Troponin levels rise within a few hours of cardiac injury, peak within 24-48 hours, and can remain elevated for up to 2 weeks. Troponin is considered the gold standard biomarker for the diagnosis of acute myocardial infarction due to its high specificity and sensitivity for cardiac injury. In contrast, Creatine kinase-MB (CK-MB) and myoglobin are also used in diagnosing myocardial infarction but are less specific than troponin. Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) is primarily used in heart failure diagnosis and management, and its levels are not specific to myocardial injury.

Question 2 of 9

Following a severe traumatic brain injury, a patient is experiencing alterations in consciousness characterized by periods of wakefulness but with no meaningful interaction with the environment. Which term best describes this state?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: A vegetative state, now more commonly referred to as unresponsive wakefulness syndrome, describes a condition where the patient is awake but with no awareness of themselves or their surroundings. This state usually follows a severe brain injury, such as traumatic brain injury. Patients in a vegetative state may have sleep-wake cycles, open their eyes, and even exhibit reflex movements, but they do not demonstrate any meaningful interaction with the environment. Differentiating between coma and vegetative state is important, as coma implies a complete lack of consciousness, while patients in a vegetative state have preserved wakefulness without awareness. Minimally conscious state (choice C) refers to a condition where there are some minimal signs of awareness or purposeful interaction, making it a different state than the one described in the scenario. Locked-in syndrome (choice D) is a condition where the patient is conscious and aware but unable to move or communicate due to paralysis, which is not consistent

Question 3 of 9

A patient presents with chest pain that occurs during heavy lifting or physical exertion and is relieved by rest. An electrocardiogram (ECG) may show transient ST-segment depression. Which cardiovascular disorder is most likely responsible for these symptoms?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The given patient's symptoms of chest pain that occurs during heavy lifting or physical exertion and is relieved by rest are consistent with stable angina. Stable angina is characterized by predictable chest pain that occurs with exertion and is typically relieved by rest or nitroglycerin. The transient ST-segment depression on ECG is also a common finding in patients with stable angina, which reflects myocardial ischemia during episodes of chest pain triggered by exertion. In contrast, unstable angina is characterized by chest pain at rest or with minimal exertion that is of increasing frequency, severity, or duration. Acute myocardial infarction is associated with persistent ST-segment elevation or new Q-waves on ECG, and Prinzmetal's angina is characterized by chest pain at rest due to coronary artery spasm rather than exertion.

Question 4 of 9

Which of the following salivary glands is located inferior and posterior to the mandible and produces serous saliva rich in enzymes?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The submandibular gland is located inferior and posterior to the mandible. It produces a mixed type of saliva, which is primarily serous (enzyme-rich) but also contains some mucous components. This gland plays a significant role in digestion, as its serous saliva contains enzymes such as amylase that help break down carbohydrates in the mouth before they reach the stomach.

Question 5 of 9

Nurse Bea recall the theory or Nursing as caring by ______.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The theory of Nursing as Caring was developed by Dr. Jean Watson, a renowned nurse theorist and professor. Watson's Theory of Human Caring focuses on the importance of the nurse-patient relationship, emphasizing the significance of caring in promoting healing and promoting holistic well-being. This theory emphasizes the humanistic aspects of nursing care and highlights the nurse's role in fostering a caring environment that encompasses physical, emotional, social, and spiritual dimensions. Watson's theory emphasizes the importance of empathy, compassion, and authentic presence in nursing practice, making it a valuable framework for guiding nursing care and promoting healing outcomes.

Question 6 of 9

systematic meta- analysis of the literature?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Systematic meta-analysis of the literature typically involves synthesizing research findings from multiple studies on a particular topic. The most common way to gather relevant studies for a meta-analysis is by searching through electronic databases. These databases contain a wide range of peer-reviewed literature such as research articles, reviews, and conference papers. Using electronic databases ensures a comprehensive and systematic approach to finding all relevant studies needed for a meta-analysis. While doctoral dissertations and statistical methods such as those offered by Cochrane can also be valuable sources of information, an electronic database is the primary tool used for conducting a systematic meta-analysis of the literature.

Question 7 of 9

Type I IgE-mediated immediate hypersensitivity reaction is promptly managed with ____.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Type I IgE-mediated immediate hypersensitivity reactions, such as anaphylaxis, are promptly managed with epinephrine. Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis as it helps counteract the severe symptoms by relaxing the muscles in the airways, constricting blood vessels, and decreasing swelling. It acts quickly to reverse the potentially life-threatening effects of the allergic reaction and is crucial in managing anaphylaxis effectively. Other medications like antihistamines (e.g., diphenhydramine) and corticosteroids may be used as adjuncts, but epinephrine remains the primary treatment for immediate hypersensitivity reactions.

Question 8 of 9

Which of the following nursing actions should the nurse TEACH the patient's care giver regarding tracheostomy care?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Cleaning the inner cannula daily helps prevent the accumulation of secretions and debris, which can lead to blockages and infections. It is an essential aspect of tracheostomy care to maintain the patency of the airway and prevent complications. Caregivers should be taught how to safely remove, clean, and reinsert the inner cannula as part of routine tracheostomy care.

Question 9 of 9

A patient expresses confusion about their medication regimen. What is the nurse's best approach to address this issue?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The nurse's best approach to address the patient's confusion about their medication regimen is to use a teach-back method to assess understanding and clarify any misconceptions. This method involves the nurse asking the patient to explain in their own words how they will take their medications, what each medication is for, and any potential side effects they should watch for. By using the teach-back method, the nurse can confirm the patient's comprehension and correct any misunderstandings in a supportive and non-judgmental manner. This approach promotes patient education, empowerment, and adherence to the medication regimen. Providing written instructions alone (Choice A) may not be sufficient if the patient has difficulty reading or understanding written information. Explaining the medication regimen using complex medical terminology (Choice B) can further confuse the patient, making it harder for them to grasp the information. Dismissing the patient's concerns and reassuring them that the medication is safe (Choice D) does not address the root of the issue and

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