A patient is admitted with a suspected myocardial infarction. Which cardiac biomarker is most specific for myocardial injury?

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Foundations and Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

A patient is admitted with a suspected myocardial infarction. Which cardiac biomarker is most specific for myocardial injury?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Troponin is the most specific cardiac biomarker for myocardial injury. Troponin I and Troponin T are proteins released into the bloodstream when there is damage to the heart muscle, making them highly indicative of myocardial infarction. Troponin levels rise within a few hours of cardiac injury, peak within 24-48 hours, and can remain elevated for up to 2 weeks. Troponin is considered the gold standard biomarker for the diagnosis of acute myocardial infarction due to its high specificity and sensitivity for cardiac injury. In contrast, Creatine kinase-MB (CK-MB) and myoglobin are also used in diagnosing myocardial infarction but are less specific than troponin. Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) is primarily used in heart failure diagnosis and management, and its levels are not specific to myocardial injury.

Question 2 of 9

A patient with a history of Hodgkin lymphoma presents with fever, chills, and generalized malaise. Laboratory tests reveal pancytopenia, circulating Reed-Sternberg cells, and bone marrow involvement. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause these findings?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The patient is presenting with symptoms and laboratory findings consistent with a paraneoplastic syndrome related to Hodgkin lymphoma. In this case, the fever, chills, generalized malaise, pancytopenia, circulating Reed-Sternberg cells, and bone marrow involvement are all indicative of a paraneoplastic syndrome associated with Hodgkin lymphoma. Paraneoplastic syndromes are a group of disorders that are triggered by an abnormal immune response to a neoplasm, such as Hodgkin lymphoma, leading to various systemic manifestations.

Question 3 of 9

A woman in active labor has been diagnosed with placenta previa. What is the priority nursing intervention?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In the case of a woman in active labor with placenta previa, the priority nursing intervention is to prepare for an immediate cesarean section. Placenta previa is a condition in which the placenta covers part or all of the cervix, which can lead to severe bleeding during labor and delivery. The risk of hemorrhage is significant, making a cesarean section the safest option for both the mother and the baby in this situation. It is crucial to act promptly to prevent complications and ensure the well-being of both the mother and the baby. Administering intravenous oxytocin to augment labor or inserting a Foley catheter to monitor urine output would not address the immediate risk of hemorrhage associated with placenta previa. Implementing bed rest and continuous fetal monitoring may be part of the overall care plan but not the priority intervention in this urgent situation.

Question 4 of 9

Mr. Steve is brought to the medical ward. the next day, he wants to know about his illness. The nurse on duty replied,'You don't need to know your diagnosis'. Which of the following rights of the patient is violated? Right to_____.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The right being violated in this scenario is the right to obtain from his physician complete current information concerning his diagnosis, treatment, and prognosis. Patients have the right to be fully informed about their health status and to understand the details of their condition, treatment options, and likely outcomes. Withholding this information can prevent the patient from participating in their own care decisions and can violate their autonomy and right to make informed choices about their health.

Question 5 of 9

Ms. Nena suggested to use an analytic approach in their research. Which of the following statements BEST describes the analytic approach?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The analytic approach refers to a method that views factors that influence health and by which interventions to improve health are directed. In this case, utilizing an analytic approach in the research means looking into the root causes of the health problems in the community, analyzing various factors that contribute to the prevalence of obesity and heart ailments, and developing targeted interventions to address these issues effectively. This approach involves identifying underlying reasons for health problems and strategically planning interventions to improve the health outcomes of the community.

Question 6 of 9

A patient in the ICU develops acute myocardial infarction (MI) with cardiogenic shock. What intervention should the healthcare team prioritize to manage the patient's shock?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In a patient with acute myocardial infarction (MI) complicated by cardiogenic shock, the primary intervention to manage shock is emergent percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI). PCI is a procedure performed to restore blood flow in an occluded coronary artery that is causing the MI. By opening up the blocked artery and restoring blood flow to the heart muscle, PCI can help reduce myocardial damage, improve cardiac function, and stabilize the patient's condition. Prompt reperfusion via PCI is crucial in the setting of cardiogenic shock to improve survival outcomes and reduce the risk of further complications. Administering inotropic medications, initiating therapeutic hypothermia, or recommending anticoagulant therapy may be components of management in specific cases but are not the primary intervention for managing shock in a patient with acute MI and cardiogenic shock.

Question 7 of 9

The ability of a screening test to distinguish correctly between persons with and without a disease is knows as _________.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Validity refers to the extent to which a test accurately measures what it is intended to measure. In the context of screening tests for diseases, validity is crucial in assessing whether the test can correctly distinguish between individuals who have the disease (true positives) and those who do not have the disease (true negatives). This includes the ability to minimize false positives (incorrectly identifying someone as having the disease) and false negatives (incorrectly identifying someone as not having the disease). Therefore, when assessing the ability of a screening test to distinguish correctly between persons with and without a disease, we are essentially evaluating its validity.

Question 8 of 9

Which assessment by the nurse would cause a concern for Meperidine Overdosed?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Meperidine (Demerol) is an opioid analgesic. Overdose of Meperidine can lead to respiratory depression, characterized by slow and shallow breathing. As a result of respiratory depression, hypercapnia, which is an increased level of carbon dioxide in the blood, can occur. This is a serious concern and requires immediate medical intervention to support respiratory function. Therefore, hypercapnia would be the assessment by the nurse that causes a concern for Meperidine overdose.

Question 9 of 9

The FIRST PRIORITY nursing intervention during the immediate postpartum period is focused on

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Postpartum hemorrhage is a serious complication that can occur within the first 24 hours after childbirth. It is the leading cause of maternal mortality worldwide. Therefore, during the immediate postpartum period, the first priority nursing intervention should be focused on observing for signs and symptoms of postpartum hemorrhage, such as excessive bleeding, abnormal vital signs, and changes in uterine tone. Early detection and prompt intervention can prevent severe complications and save the mother's life. Monitoring urinary output, taking vital signs, and checking level of responsiveness are important aspects of postpartum care but observing for postpartum hemorrhage takes precedence due to its critical nature.

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