ATI RN
Pharmacology and the Nursing Process 10th Edition Test Bank Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient is admitted with a diagnosis of renal failure. He also mentions that he has stomach distress and ha ingested numerous antacid tablets over the past 2 days. His blood pressure is 110/70, his face is flushed, and he is experiencing generalized weakness. Choose the most likely magnesium (Mg ) value.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 11mEq/L. In renal failure, the kidneys are unable to excrete excess magnesium, leading to hypermagnesemia. The patient's symptoms of stomach distress and ingesting antacids suggest magnesium intake. A Mg level of 11mEq/L aligns with symptoms like flushed face and weakness. Choices B, C, and D are too low for hypermagnesemia symptoms and would not explain the patient's presentation.
Question 2 of 9
For a client diagnosed with idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP), which nursing intervention is appropriate?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administering platelets, as ordered to maintain an adequate platelet count. In ITP, the client has low platelet count leading to risk of bleeding. Administering platelets helps raise platelet levels and prevent bleeding complications. Teaching coughing and deep-breathing techniques (A) is important for preventing respiratory infections but not directly related to ITP. Giving aspirin (C) is contraindicated as it can further decrease platelet count. Administering stool softeners (D) is important for preventing straining but not specific to managing ITP.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the ff. subjective data questions would assist the nurse in assessing the patient’s eye health?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Asking about seeing halos around lights is relevant to assessing the patient's eye health as it could indicate conditions like glaucoma or cataracts. Upper respiratory infections (A), riding in a car (B), and scuba diving (C) are not directly related to eye health assessment. By focusing on symptoms directly related to the eyes, the nurse can gather relevant information for a more accurate assessment.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse has been teaching an adult who has iron deficiency anemia about those foods that she needs to include in her meal plans. Which of the following, if selected, would indicate to the nurse that the client understands the dietary instructions?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Citrus fruits and green leafy vegetables. Citrus fruits and green leafy vegetables are good sources of Vitamin C and iron, which are essential for individuals with iron deficiency anemia. Vitamin C enhances the absorption of iron from plant-based sources, while green leafy vegetables provide iron. Bananas and nuts (choice B) are not significant sources of iron. Coffee and tea (choice C) can inhibit iron absorption. Dairy products (choice D) are not high in iron and can also inhibit iron absorption. Therefore, choosing citrus fruits and green leafy vegetables indicates understanding of the dietary instructions for managing iron deficiency anemia.
Question 5 of 9
Mr. Chua has developed liver cirrhosis. Nurse Bea expects alteration in which laboratory values?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: prothrombin time. In liver cirrhosis, the liver's ability to produce clotting factors is impaired, leading to prolonged prothrombin time. This indicates an increased risk of bleeding. Choice A is incorrect as carbon dioxide levels are not typically affected by liver cirrhosis. Choice C, gastric pH, is unrelated to liver function. Choice D, white blood cell count, is not directly affected by liver cirrhosis. Therefore, the alteration in prothrombin time is the most relevant laboratory value to monitor in this case.
Question 6 of 9
A patient verbalizes a low pain level of 2 out of 10 but exhibits extreme facial grimacing while moving around in bed. What is the nurse’s initial action in response to these observations?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct initial action for the nurse is to ask the patient about the facial grimacing with movement (Choice C). This is important because the patient may not accurately express their pain level verbally. By addressing the discrepancy between the patient's verbal report and non-verbal cues, the nurse can gather more information to assess the patient's pain accurately. By directly communicating with the patient, the nurse can ensure that the appropriate interventions are provided. Choice A is incorrect because it disregards the need to address the patient's pain assessment. Choice B assumes the patient's preference without further clarification. Choice D jumps to administering pain medication without fully assessing the situation, which could lead to inappropriate treatment.
Question 7 of 9
A patient verbalizes a low pain level of 2 out of 10 but exhibits extreme facial grimacing while moving around in bed. What is the nurse’s initial action in response to these observations?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Ask the patient about the facial grimacing with movement. This is the initial action because the discrepancy between the patient's verbal pain level and non-verbal cues needs clarification. By directly asking the patient about the facial grimacing, the nurse can gather more information to assess the actual pain level accurately. This step ensures a comprehensive understanding of the patient's pain experience and guides further interventions. Incorrect choices: A: Proceed to the next patient’s room to make rounds - This choice neglects the need to address the discrepancy in the patient's pain assessment. B: Determine the patient does not want any pain medicine - Assuming the patient's preference without further assessment can lead to inadequate pain management. D: Administer the pain medication ordered for moderate to severe pain - Without clarifying the reason behind the facial grimacing, administering pain medication may not be appropriate and could result in unnecessary medication use.
Question 8 of 9
A client has type1 diabetes. Her husband finds her unconscious at home and administers glucagons, 0.5 mg S.C. She awakens in 5 minutes .Why her husband offer a complex carbohydrate snack to her as soon as possible?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. After administering glucagon for hypoglycemia, the body may deplete its glycogen stores from the liver. Offering a complex carbohydrate snack will help restore liver glycogen, preventing secondary hypoglycemia. This is crucial for maintaining blood glucose levels in individuals with type 1 diabetes. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because offering a complex carbohydrate snack is primarily aimed at restoring liver glycogen to prevent further hypoglycemic episodes, not to address nausea/vomiting, stimulate appetite, or decrease glycogen levels.
Question 9 of 9
A client asks the nurse about the four-point gait when partial weight bearing is permitted. What is the nurse’s BEST response?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because in the four-point gait with partial weight bearing, the client should move the right crutch ahead first to provide support and stability, followed by the left foot. This sequence ensures proper weight distribution and balance. Moving both crutches together (B) may compromise stability. Moving the left crutch and right foot together (C) may cause uneven weight distribution. Moving both crutches and weaker leg together (D) may not provide adequate support for the weaker leg.