A patient is admitted with a 2-month history of fatigue, SOB, pallor, and dizziness. The patient is diagnosed with idiopathic autoimmune haemolytic anemia. On reviewing the laboratory results, the nurse notes which of the following that confirms this diagnosis?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: RBC fragments. In idiopathic autoimmune hemolytic anemia, the immune system attacks and destroys red blood cells, leading to hemolysis. The presence of RBC fragments in the blood smear confirms this diagnosis as it indicates mechanical damage to RBCs. Explanation: 1. RBC fragments (schistocytes) are a hallmark of hemolysis, seen in conditions like autoimmune hemolytic anemia. 2. Microcytic, hypochromic RBCs (Choice B) are typically seen in iron deficiency anemia, not autoimmune hemolytic anemia. 3. Macrocytic, normochromic RBCs (Choice C) are characteristic of megaloblastic anemias like vitamin B12 deficiency, not autoimmune hemolytic anemia. 4. Hemoglobin molecules (Choice D) are not directly indicative of autoimmune hemolytic anemia; the presence of free hemoglobin in the blood would suggest intrav

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: Vitamin B12 is absorbed in the small intestine with the help of intrinsic factor produced by parietal cells in the stomach. Step 2: Intrinsic factor binds to vitamin B12, forming a complex that is then absorbed in the ileum. Step 3: If intrinsic factor is lacking (as seen in pernicious anemia), vitamin B12 absorption is impaired, leading to megaloblastic anemia. Step 4: Administering cyanocobalamin bypasses the need for intrinsic factor. Step 5: Thus, intrinsic factor influences Vitamin B12 absorption. Other choices (B, C, D) do not play a direct role in Vitamin B12 absorption.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Use pressure relieving devices when the client is in bed. This is because pressure ulcers are a common risk for individuals with neuromuscular disorders due to immobility. Pressure relieving devices such as special mattresses or cushions help redistribute pressure and prevent skin breakdown. Incorrect choices: A: Preventing strenuous exercises is not directly related to preventing skin breakdown in this case. C: Placing the client in Fowler's position may be beneficial for respiratory issues but does not directly address skin integrity. D: Avoiding daily baths with soaps may lead to poor hygiene and does not specifically address the risk of skin breakdown.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Thyroid crisis. These signs suggest thyroid storm, a life-threatening complication of thyroid surgery. The high fever, tachycardia, and restlessness are classic symptoms. Thyroid crisis can lead to severe complications if not managed promptly. A: Diabetic ketoacidosis typically presents with polyuria, polydipsia, and fruity breath odor. B: Hypoglycemia would present with symptoms like diaphoresis, tremors, and confusion. D: Tetany is associated with hypocalcemia and presents with muscle cramps, spasms, and numbness.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: General to specific assessment. This type of assessment approach involves starting with a broad overview of the patient's condition and then narrowing down to specific details. In this scenario, the nurse begins by examining the surgical dressing, which is a specific aspect of the patient's condition, after which they can proceed to gather more detailed information about the drainage, wound healing, and any associated symptoms. This approach allows the nurse to systematically assess the patient's postoperative status and identify any potential issues. A: Gordon’s Functional Health Patterns is a comprehensive framework for organizing patient data, but it does not specifically address the sequence of assessment in this scenario. B: Activity-exercise pattern assessment focuses on the patient's activity level and exercise habits, which is not the primary concern in this situation. D: Problem-oriented assessment involves identifying and addressing specific health problems, but it does not capture the systematic progression from general to specific assessment as seen in this scenario.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Improve ability to hear. A hearing aid is designed to improve a person's ability to hear by amplifying sound. This helps individuals with hearing loss to better understand speech and sounds in their environment. A: Amplifying background noise is not the main purpose of a hearing aid. It may actually hinder the user's ability to focus on important sounds. B: Amplifying musical sounds is not the primary function of a hearing aid. The main focus is on improving speech understanding. C: Occluding the ear is not the purpose of a hearing aid. It is meant to enhance hearing, not block sound.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A semiprivate room with one or two consistent caregivers is the most therapeutic setting for an agitated head-injured patient. Here's the rationale: 1. Consistency: Having one or two consistent caregivers provides the patient with a stable and familiar environment, which can help reduce agitation. 2. Privacy: A semiprivate room offers more privacy compared to a day room or a ward, which can help minimize external stimuli and promote relaxation. 3. Individualized care: In a semiprivate room, caregivers can focus more on the specific needs of the patient, leading to better management of agitation. 4. Reduced distractions: Being in a semiprivate room minimizes distractions and noise, which can be overwhelming for an agitated head-injured patient. Summary: A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not offer the same level of consistency, privacy, individualized care, and reduced distractions as a semiprivate room with one

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Check for neurologic status. This is the first action because assessing the patient's neurologic status helps identify any immediate threats to their health and guides further interventions. It is crucial to ensure the patient's safety and prioritize interventions based on their neurologic status. Starting an IV for fluids (A), getting an ECG (B), and placing a Foley catheter (C) are important interventions but should come after assessing the patient's neurologic status to address any urgent issues first.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because evaluating a nursing intervention involves collecting data to determine if the goals set for the intervention were achieved. This process helps in assessing the effectiveness of the intervention in meeting the desired outcomes. Option B is incorrect as it refers to the identification of nursing diagnoses for new problems, which is part of the nursing assessment phase, not evaluation. Option C is incorrect as adjusting the care plan to include collaborative interventions is part of the implementation phase, not evaluation. Option D is incorrect as performing client care tasks as per protocol is part of the implementation phase, not evaluation.