A patient is admitted with a 2-month history of fatigue, SOB, pallor, and dizziness. The patient is diagnosed with idiopathic autoimmune haemolytic anemia. On reviewing the laboratory results, the nurse notes which of the following that confirms this diagnosis?

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Question 1 of 9

A patient is admitted with a 2-month history of fatigue, SOB, pallor, and dizziness. The patient is diagnosed with idiopathic autoimmune haemolytic anemia. On reviewing the laboratory results, the nurse notes which of the following that confirms this diagnosis?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: RBC fragments. In idiopathic autoimmune hemolytic anemia, the immune system attacks and destroys red blood cells, leading to hemolysis. The presence of RBC fragments in the blood smear confirms this diagnosis as it indicates mechanical damage to RBCs. Explanation: 1. RBC fragments (schistocytes) are a hallmark of hemolysis, seen in conditions like autoimmune hemolytic anemia. 2. Microcytic, hypochromic RBCs (Choice B) are typically seen in iron deficiency anemia, not autoimmune hemolytic anemia. 3. Macrocytic, normochromic RBCs (Choice C) are characteristic of megaloblastic anemias like vitamin B12 deficiency, not autoimmune hemolytic anemia. 4. Hemoglobin molecules (Choice D) are not directly indicative of autoimmune hemolytic anemia; the presence of free hemoglobin in the blood would suggest intrav

Question 2 of 9

Which iron-rich foods should the nurse encourage an anemic client requiring iron therapy to eat?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D (Lamb and peaches) because lamb is a good source of heme iron, which is more easily absorbed by the body compared to non-heme iron found in plant-based foods. Peaches are high in vitamin C, which enhances iron absorption. Shrimp and tomatoes (A) have some iron but are not as rich in iron as lamb. Cheese and bananas (B) are not significant sources of iron. Lobster and squash (C) also do not provide as much iron as lamb. Overall, the combination of heme iron from lamb and vitamin C from peaches makes them the most suitable choices for an anemic client requiring iron therapy.

Question 3 of 9

The nurse begins a shift assessment by examining a surgical dressing that is saturated with serosanguineous drainage on a patient who had open abdominal surgery yesterday (or 1 day ago). Which type of assessment approach is the nurse using?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: General to specific assessment. This type of assessment approach involves starting with a broad overview of the patient's condition and then narrowing down to specific details. In this scenario, the nurse begins by examining the surgical dressing, which is a specific aspect of the patient's condition, after which they can proceed to gather more detailed information about the drainage, wound healing, and any associated symptoms. This approach allows the nurse to systematically assess the patient's postoperative status and identify any potential issues. A: Gordon’s Functional Health Patterns is a comprehensive framework for organizing patient data, but it does not specifically address the sequence of assessment in this scenario. B: Activity-exercise pattern assessment focuses on the patient's activity level and exercise habits, which is not the primary concern in this situation. D: Problem-oriented assessment involves identifying and addressing specific health problems, but it does not capture the systematic progression from general to specific assessment as seen in this scenario.

Question 4 of 9

Which of the following best defines the process of evaluating a nursing intervention?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because evaluating a nursing intervention involves collecting data to determine if the goals set for the intervention were achieved. This process helps in assessing the effectiveness of the intervention in meeting the desired outcomes. Option B is incorrect as it refers to the identification of nursing diagnoses for new problems, which is part of the nursing assessment phase, not evaluation. Option C is incorrect as adjusting the care plan to include collaborative interventions is part of the implementation phase, not evaluation. Option D is incorrect as performing client care tasks as per protocol is part of the implementation phase, not evaluation.

Question 5 of 9

The nurse begins a shift assessment by examining a surgical dressing that is saturated with serosanguineous drainage on a patient who had open abdominal surgery yesterday (or 1 day ago). Which type of assessment approach is the nurse using?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: General to specific assessment. In this scenario, the nurse is starting the assessment by examining a specific aspect (surgical dressing with drainage) and will likely proceed to gather more detailed information based on the initial findings. This approach involves moving from a broad overview to specific details, which is essential in assessing postoperative patients for complications. A: Gordon’s Functional Health Patterns is a comprehensive assessment framework that covers various aspects of an individual's health, not specifically focusing on the progression from general to specific assessments in this situation. B: Activity-exercise pattern assessment focuses on the patient's activity levels and exercise routines, which is not the primary focus of the scenario described. D: Problem-oriented assessment is a method that involves identifying and addressing specific health issues or concerns, which is not the primary aim of the assessment approach used by the nurse in this scenario.

Question 6 of 9

The dietary practice that will help a client reduce the dietary intake of sodium is

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Avoiding the use of carbonated beverages. Carbonated beverages often have high sodium content, which can contribute to increased sodium intake. By avoiding these beverages, the client can significantly reduce their sodium consumption. Explanation: 1. Carbonated beverages often contain added sodium for flavor enhancement. 2. By avoiding carbonated beverages, the client eliminates a significant source of hidden sodium in their diet. 3. This dietary practice directly targets reducing sodium intake without compromising other nutritional aspects of the diet. Summary of other choices: A: Increasing the use of dairy products - Dairy products do not necessarily impact sodium intake significantly. B: Using an artificial sweetener in coffee - Artificial sweeteners do not contribute to sodium intake. D: Using catsup for cooking and flavoring food - Catsup is high in sodium and would not help in reducing sodium intake.

Question 7 of 9

Which of the ff nursing interventions ensure that a client with Hodgkin’s disease remains free of infection? Choose all that apply

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: C: Practice conscientious hand washing is correct as it helps prevent the spread of infection. Proper hand hygiene is essential in reducing the risk of infection transmission to the client with Hodgkin's disease. A: Apply ice to the skin for brief periods is incorrect as it does not directly relate to preventing infection in the client. B: Provide cool sponge baths is incorrect as it mainly addresses comfort and hygiene but does not specifically target infection prevention. D: Use cotton gloves Restrict visitors or personnel with infections from contact with the client is incorrect because while using gloves can help prevent the spread of infection, restricting visitors with infections is not under the direct control of the nurse. Summary: Practicing conscientious hand washing is crucial in preventing infection in a client with Hodgkin's disease, while the other choices do not directly address infection control in this context.

Question 8 of 9

A client with advanced liver cancer is scheduled for chemotherapy. As part of the chemotherapy regimen, the nurse expects the physician to prescribe:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fluorouracil (5-fluorouracil, 5-FU). Fluorouracil is a commonly used chemotherapy drug for treating advanced liver cancer. It works by inhibiting the growth of cancer cells. This drug is specifically effective in targeting rapidly dividing cells, which is a characteristic of cancer cells. Fluorouracil is often used in combination with other chemotherapy drugs to improve treatment outcomes. Summary of other choices: A: Fluoxymesterone (Halotestin) - This is an androgen hormone used to treat certain types of breast cancer, not liver cancer. C: Tamoxifen (Nolvadex) - This is a hormonal therapy drug used in breast cancer, not liver cancer. D: Megestrol (Megace) - This is a hormonal therapy drug used for certain types of cancers, but not typically for liver cancer.

Question 9 of 9

. Which of the following instructions should be included in the teaching plan for a client requiring insulin?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Draw up clear insulin first when mixing two types of insulin in one syringe. This is important because mixing insulin requires drawing up the clear (short-acting) insulin first to prevent contamination. This ensures accurate dosing and prevents clouding of the insulin. Drawing up cloudy insulin first can lead to inaccurate dosing and potential mixing errors. Administering insulin after the first meal (choice A) is not the focus of this question. Administering insulin at a 45-degree angle into the deltoid muscle (choice B) is not recommended for insulin injections. Vigorously shaking the vial of insulin before withdrawal (choice C) can cause bubbles and affect the accuracy of the dose.

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