Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: RBC fragments. In idiopathic autoimmune hemolytic anemia, the immune system attacks and destroys red blood cells, leading to hemolysis. The presence of RBC fragments in the blood smear confirms this diagnosis as it indicates mechanical damage to RBCs. Explanation: 1. RBC fragments (schistocytes) are a hallmark of hemolysis, seen in conditions like autoimmune hemolytic anemia. 2. Microcytic, hypochromic RBCs (Choice B) are typically seen in iron deficiency anemia, not autoimmune hemolytic anemia. 3. Macrocytic, normochromic RBCs (Choice C) are characteristic of megaloblastic anemias like vitamin B12 deficiency, not autoimmune hemolytic anemia. 4. Hemoglobin molecules (Choice D) are not directly indicative of autoimmune hemolytic anemia; the presence of free hemoglobin in the blood would suggest intrav

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: IV drugs and chemicals. Thrombophlebitis is inflammation of a vein with blood clot formation, commonly caused by irritants like IV drugs. Impaired mobility (C) and compromised circulation (D) are risk factors for thrombophlebitis, but not specific to older adults with heart and blood vessel diseases. A is incorrect as not all choices apply in this scenario.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Use pressure relieving devices when the client is in bed. This is because pressure ulcers are a common risk for individuals with neuromuscular disorders due to immobility. Pressure relieving devices such as special mattresses or cushions help redistribute pressure and prevent skin breakdown. Incorrect choices: A: Preventing strenuous exercises is not directly related to preventing skin breakdown in this case. C: Placing the client in Fowler's position may be beneficial for respiratory issues but does not directly address skin integrity. D: Avoiding daily baths with soaps may lead to poor hygiene and does not specifically address the risk of skin breakdown.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fluorouracil (5-fluorouracil, 5-FU). Fluorouracil is a commonly used chemotherapy drug for treating advanced liver cancer. It works by inhibiting the growth of cancer cells. This drug is specifically effective in targeting rapidly dividing cells, which is a characteristic of cancer cells. Fluorouracil is often used in combination with other chemotherapy drugs to improve treatment outcomes. Summary of other choices: A: Fluoxymesterone (Halotestin) - This is an androgen hormone used to treat certain types of breast cancer, not liver cancer. C: Tamoxifen (Nolvadex) - This is a hormonal therapy drug used in breast cancer, not liver cancer. D: Megestrol (Megace) - This is a hormonal therapy drug used for certain types of cancers, but not typically for liver cancer.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: “Be sure to take glipizide 30 minutes before meals.” This instruction is correct because glipizide is an oral antidiabetic agent that works best when taken before meals to help control blood glucose levels. Taking it before meals allows the medication to coincide with the body's natural insulin response to food intake, thereby improving its effectiveness. Choice B is incorrect because glipizide does not typically cause low serum sodium levels, so there is no need for monthly sodium level checks. Choice C is incorrect because it is essential for the client to continue monitoring their blood glucose levels even after starting glipizide to ensure the medication is working effectively. Choice D is incorrect because taking glipizide after a meal will not optimize its effectiveness in controlling blood glucose levels.