ATI RN
Critical Care Nursing Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient is admitted to the emergency department (ED) after falling through the ice while ice skating. Which assessment will the nurse obtain first?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Body temperature. In a patient who has fallen through the ice, hypothermia is a major concern due to exposure to cold water. Assessing body temperature first is crucial to determine the severity of hypothermia and guide immediate interventions. Heart rate, breath sounds, and level of consciousness can be affected by hypothermia but are secondary assessments. Assessing body temperature is the priority to address the most life-threatening issue first.
Question 2 of 9
Slow continuous ultrafiltration is also known as isolated ultrafiltration and is used to
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because slow continuous ultrafiltration removes excess plasma water in cases of volume overload by applying a pressure gradient across a semipermeable membrane. This process helps to achieve fluid balance without removing solutes. Choice B is incorrect because convection is not the primary mechanism of slow continuous ultrafiltration. Choice C is incorrect as dialysate is not added in slow continuous ultrafiltration. Choice D is incorrect as slow continuous ultrafiltration does not combine all three processes of ultrafiltration, convection, and dialysis.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse caring for a critically ill patient implements several components of care. What component is an example of the use of evidence-based practice?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because applying an insulin sliding scale method based on research is an example of evidence-based practice. This method is derived from scientific evidence and research studies, ensuring the best outcomes for the patient. The other choices lack the same level of evidence-based rationale: A is based on a protocol, which may not be evidence-based; C is a standard safety practice, not necessarily evidence-based; D is a decision based on hospital policy or practicality, not specifically evidence-based.
Question 4 of 9
The patient undergoes a cardiac catheterization that requires the use of contrast dyes during the procedure. To detect signs of contrast-induced kidney injury, the nurse should
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because evaluating the patient's serum creatinine for up to 72 hours after the procedure is crucial in detecting contrast-induced kidney injury. An increase in serum creatinine levels indicates impaired kidney function due to the contrast dye. This monitoring allows for early detection and intervention to prevent further kidney damage. Choice A is incorrect because a decrease in urine output is a late sign of kidney injury and may not be present in the early stages. Choice C is incorrect as a renal ultrasound is not typically used to detect contrast-induced kidney injury. Choice D is incorrect as postvoid residual volume assessment is not specific to detecting intrarenal injury related to contrast dye use.
Question 5 of 9
A critically ill patient tells the nurse that he is not afraid to die because he believes in reincarnation. What is the most appropriate nursing response?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because it acknowledges and validates the patient's belief, showing empathy and support. By stating that the belief gives strength, the nurse facilitates a therapeutic relationship and promotes the patient's emotional well-being. Choice A is incorrect as it challenges the patient's belief system, potentially creating conflict. Choice C is inappropriate as it dismisses the patient's belief and could damage the nurse-patient relationship. Choice D is also incorrect as it invalidates the patient's belief and could harm trust and rapport.
Question 6 of 9
What is the most common cause of a pulmonary embolus?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: A deep vein thrombosis from lower extremities. Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is the most common cause of a pulmonary embolus as a blood clot can dislodge from the veins, travel to the lungs, and block blood flow. An amniotic fluid embolus (Choice A) occurs during childbirth and is rare as a cause of pulmonary embolism. A fat embolus (Choice C) typically occurs after a long bone fracture and is more likely to cause issues in the lungs. Vegetation from an infected central venous catheter (Choice D) can cause septic pulmonary embolism, but it is not as common as DVT.
Question 7 of 9
A patient who has been declared brain dead is considered a potential organ donor. In order to proceed with donation, the nurse must understand that applicable concept?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because after brain death is confirmed, maintaining perfusion and oxygenation of organs is crucial to ensure their viability for donation. This process allows organs to be retrieved in optimal condition during the operation. Choice A is incorrect because a signed donor card is not a legal mandate for organ retrieval. Choice C is incorrect as the healthcare proxy's consent is typically required for organ donation. Choice D is incorrect because life support is not immediately withdrawn upon brain death confirmation; instead, organ preservation measures are initiated.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient following insertion of a left subclavian central venous catheter (CVC). Which assessment finding 2 hours after insertion by the nurse warrants immediate action?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Diminished breath sounds over the left lung field. This finding could indicate a pneumothorax, a serious complication of subclavian CVC insertion. Immediate action is required to prevent respiratory distress. Incorrect answers: B: Localized pain at insertion site is common post-procedure and may not indicate a serious issue. C: A central venous pressure of 5 mm Hg is within the normal range and does not require immediate action. D: Slight bloody drainage is expected initially and can be managed with routine care.
Question 9 of 9
What risk is the rationale for the recommendation of endot racheal rather than nasotracheal intubation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Basilar skull fracture. Endotracheal intubation is recommended over nasotracheal intubation to avoid the risk of further damaging a basilar skull fracture. Nasotracheal intubation can potentially cause further injury due to the passage of the tube through the nasal cavity, which could exacerbate a basilar skull fracture. Summary of other choices: B: Cervical hyperextension - Not directly related to the choice between endotracheal and nasotracheal intubation. C: Impaired ability to "mouth" words - Not a significant factor in determining the choice of intubation method. D: Sinusitis and infection - While nasotracheal intubation can potentially lead to sinusitis and infection, the primary concern in this scenario is the risk of aggravating a basilar skull fracture.