ATI RN
Critical Care Nursing Cardiac Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient in the ICU is recovering from open-heart surgery. The nurse enters his room and observes that his daughter is performing effleurage on his arms and talking in a low voice about an upcoming family vacation that is planned. The room is dimly lit, and she hears the constant beeping of his heart monitor. From the hall she hears the cries of a patient in pain. Which of the following are likely stressors for the patient? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: The beeping of the heart monitor is a likely stressor for the patient recovering from open-heart surgery in the ICU. The constant beeping can cause anxiety and uncertainty about their health status. The daughter's conversation and effleurage are likely comforting and supportive for the patient, reducing stress. The dim lighting may create a calming environment, and the distant cries of a patient in pain may evoke empathy but may not directly stress the recovering patient. Therefore, the beeping of the heart monitor stands out as a stressor among the choices provided.
Question 2 of 9
What term is used to describe a specific request made by a competent person that directs medical care related to life-prolonging procedures if the pa tient loses capacity to make decisions?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Living will. A living will is a legal document that outlines a person's preferences for medical treatment if they become unable to communicate their wishes. It specifically addresses life-prolonging procedures. Option A, Do not resuscitate order, is a specific directive to not perform CPR in case of cardiac arrest, not a comprehensive medical care directive. Option B, Healthcare proxy, is a person designated to make medical decisions on behalf of a patient who is unable to do so, not the specific directive itself. Option C, Informed consent, refers to the process of obtaining permission from a patient before conducting a healthcare intervention, not a directive for life-prolonging procedures.
Question 3 of 9
A hospice patient develops a pressure ulcer despite proper repositioning. What should the nurse include in the care plan?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because implementing more aggressive wound care strategies is essential for managing pressure ulcers effectively. This includes proper wound cleaning, debridement, and dressing changes to promote healing. Adequate hydration and nutrition (choice B) are important but may not directly address the pressure ulcer. Discussing prognosis and expected outcomes (choice C) is important but may not directly impact wound healing. Encouraging increased physical activity (choice D) may be contraindicated due to the patient's condition.
Question 4 of 9
An advantage of peritoneal dialysis is that
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: a decreased risk of peritonitis exists. Peritoneal dialysis involves the insertion of a catheter into the peritoneal cavity, which can introduce bacteria and increase the risk of peritonitis. However, compared to hemodialysis, peritoneal dialysis has a lower risk of bloodstream infections and vascular access-related complications, leading to a decreased risk of peritonitis. This advantage makes peritoneal dialysis a favorable option for some patients. Incorrect choices: A: peritoneal dialysis is actually less time-intensive compared to hemodialysis. C: biochemical disturbances are corrected more gradually in peritoneal dialysis. D: the danger of hemorrhage is not specific to peritoneal dialysis.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient who requires administration of a neuromuscular blocking (NMB) agent to facilitate ventilation with non-traditional m odes. The nurse understands that neuromuscular blocking agents provide what outcome?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: No sedation or analgesia. Neuromuscular blocking agents do not provide sedation or pain relief; they solely act on skeletal muscles to induce paralysis for procedures like intubation. Choice A is incorrect because NMB agents do not affect anxiety levels. Choice B is incorrect because NMB agents do not provide analgesia. Choice C is incorrect because NMB agents do not induce sedation. The primary purpose of NMB agents is to induce muscle paralysis without affecting consciousness or pain perception.
Question 6 of 9
A patient who has experienced blunt abdominal trauma during a motor vehicle collision is complaining of increasing abdominal pain. The nurse will plan to teach the patient about the purpose of:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Abdominal ultrasonography. This is because ultrasonography is a non-invasive imaging technique that can quickly evaluate for internal injuries such as organ damage or bleeding in patients with blunt abdominal trauma. It is a rapid and effective diagnostic tool to assess the extent of injury and guide further management. Peritoneal lavage (A) is an invasive procedure used in trauma settings to detect intra-abdominal bleeding but is not typically used for teaching purposes. Nasogastric tube placement (C) is used for decompression and drainage in certain conditions but is not relevant for assessing abdominal trauma. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) (D) is not typically used as the initial imaging modality for acute trauma due to time constraints and its limited availability in emergency settings.
Question 7 of 9
A patient in the ICU has recently been diagnosed with diabetes mellitus. Before being discharged, this patient will require detailed instructions on how to manage her diet, how to self-inject insulin, and how to handle future diabetic emergencies. Which nurse competency is most needed in this situation?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Facilitation of learning. In this scenario, the nurse needs to effectively educate the patient on managing her diet, insulin injections, and handling emergencies. Facilitation of learning involves assessing the patient's learning needs, providing relevant information, demonstrating skills, and evaluating understanding. This competency is crucial for promoting patient education and empowerment in managing their condition. A: Clinical judgment involves making decisions based on assessment data, which is important but not the primary focus in this situation. B: Advocacy and moral agency involve standing up for patients' rights and values, which is important but not as directly relevant to the patient's education needs. C: Caring practices involve showing empathy and compassion, which are essential but not the main competency required for educational purposes in this case.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse is caring for a postoperative patient with chroni c obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which assessment would be a cue to the patient developing postoperative pneumonia?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Change in sputum characteristics. This is a cue for postoperative pneumonia in a COPD patient because it can indicate an infection in the lungs. Postoperative pneumonia is a common complication in patients with COPD due to impaired lung function and weakened immune system. Other choices are incorrect: A) Bradycardia is not a specific indicator of postoperative pneumonia. C) Hypoventilation and respiratory acidosis can be seen in patients with COPD but are not specific to postoperative pneumonia. D) Pursed-lip breathing is a coping mechanism for patients with COPD and is not directly related to postoperative pneumonia.
Question 9 of 9
Comparing the patient’s current (home) medications with those ordered during hospitalization and communicating a complete list of medications to the next care provider when the patient is transferred within an organization or to another setting a re strategies toward best achieving what patient related goal?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Reconciling medications is essential for patient safety as it involves comparing current and ordered medications to ensure accuracy. Step 2: This process helps prevent medication errors, adverse drug reactions, and duplications across different care settings. Step 3: Communicating a complete list of medications to the next care provider ensures continuity of care and reduces the risk of medication discrepancies. Step 4: By reconciling medications across the continuum of care, healthcare providers can better coordinate patient care and optimize treatment outcomes. In summary, choice C is correct as it focuses on medication reconciliation to improve patient safety and care coordination. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly address the comprehensive process of reconciling medications across care settings.