A patient in the ICU is recovering from open-heart surgery. The nurse enters his room and observes that his daughter is performing effleurage on his arms and talking in a low voice about an upcoming family vacation that is planned. The room is dimly lit, and she hears the constant beeping of his heart monitor. From the hall she hears the cries of a patient in pain. Which of the following are likely stressors for the patient? Select all that apply.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: The beeping of the heart monitor is a likely stressor for the patient recovering from open-heart surgery in the ICU. The constant beeping can cause anxiety and uncertainty about their health status. The daughter's conversation and effleurage are likely comforting and supportive for the patient, reducing stress. The dim lighting may create a calming environment, and the distant cries of a patient in pain may evoke empathy but may not directly stress the recovering patient. Therefore, the beeping of the heart monitor stands out as a stressor among the choices provided.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because allowing family members to remain at the bedside can provide emotional support and comfort to the patient, helping them feel safe in the critical care setting. Family presence can also facilitate communication and understanding between the healthcare team and the patient. Choice B is incorrect because consulting with the charge nurse before making patient care decisions may not directly contribute to the patient feeling safe. Choice C is incorrect because providing informal conversation about work-related topics may not address the patient's need for safety and security in the critical care setting. Choice D is incorrect because explaining how to communicate for assistance is important for patient care but may not directly contribute to the patient's sense of safety in the critical care setting.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because renin activates the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone cascade, which ultimately leads to vasoconstriction, increased blood pressure, and aldosterone release to increase sodium and water reabsorption. Renin does not suppress angiotensin production (B), decrease sodium reabsorption (C), or inhibit aldosterone release (D), as these actions would counteract its role in blood pressure regulation.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Elevated creatinine. Ibuprofen can cause kidney damage, leading to elevated creatinine levels. This is because ibuprofen is metabolized in the kidneys, and prolonged use can impair kidney function. Elevated platelet count (B), elevated white blood count (C), and low liver enzymes (D) are not typically associated with ibuprofen use. Platelet count and white blood count are more related to inflammation or infection, while low liver enzymes are not a common side effect of ibuprofen.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: One chronic and one acute illness. This is because Type 2 diabetes mellitus is a chronic condition, while influenza is an acute illness. The nurse should develop goals addressing the management and control of the chronic condition (diabetes) as well as the treatment and recovery from the acute illness (influenza). This approach ensures comprehensive care that considers both the long-term management of the chronic illness and the immediate needs related to the acute illness. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not address the combination of chronic and acute illnesses presented in the scenario. Choice B focuses solely on two acute illnesses, which overlooks the ongoing management required for the chronic condition. Choice C combines an acute and an infectious illness, but fails to account for the chronic illness component. Choice D involves two chronic illnesses, neglecting the immediate care needed for the acute illness.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Assessing how long the client has been taking clonidine is crucial as drowsiness is a common side effect that typically improves over time as the body adjusts to the medication. This information helps determine if the drowsiness is a temporary side effect or a more concerning issue. Choice A (constipation) is not directly related to drowsiness as a side effect of clonidine. Choice B (missed doses) may contribute to drowsiness but is not the primary assessment priority. Choice D (tobacco use) is not directly related to clonidine-induced drowsiness.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Teach the patient the reason for the use of prophylactic antibiotics. This is the most important action because human bites can introduce harmful bacteria into the wound, leading to infection. Prophylactic antibiotics help prevent infection in deep human bite wounds. Choice A is incorrect because rabies immune globulin is not indicated for human bite wounds. Choice B is incorrect because suturing human bite wounds can trap bacteria and increase the risk of infection. Choice D is incorrect because keeping the wounds dry is not sufficient; proper wound cleaning and antibiotic treatment are essential in this case.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Living will. A living will is a legal document that outlines a person's preferences for medical treatment if they become unable to communicate their wishes. It specifically addresses life-prolonging procedures. Option A, Do not resuscitate order, is a specific directive to not perform CPR in case of cardiac arrest, not a comprehensive medical care directive. Option B, Healthcare proxy, is a person designated to make medical decisions on behalf of a patient who is unable to do so, not the specific directive itself. Option C, Informed consent, refers to the process of obtaining permission from a patient before conducting a healthcare intervention, not a directive for life-prolonging procedures.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Advance directive. An advance directive is a legal document that outlines a person's wishes regarding medical treatment and care at the end of life. It allows individuals to specify their preferences for medical interventions if they become unable to communicate. Summary of other choices: B: Guardianship ad item - This does not specifically pertain to an individual's end-of-life care wishes. C: Healthcare proxy - While similar to an advance directive, a healthcare proxy specifically designates a person to make medical decisions on behalf of the individual, rather than specifying their own wishes. D: Power of attorney - This grants someone the authority to make legal decisions on behalf of the individual, but it does not specifically address end-of-life care preferences.