ATI RN
Foundations and Adult Health Nursing Study Guide Answers Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient in the ICU develops acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) with severe hypoxemia refractory to conventional oxygen therapy. What intervention should the healthcare team prioritize to improve the patient's oxygenation?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In the scenario described, the patient is experiencing severe hypoxemia refractory to conventional oxygen therapy, indicating a need for advanced respiratory support. When a patient with ARDS fails to respond to conservative management, including mechanical ventilation strategies, prone positioning, and recruitment maneuvers, the next step may involve extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO). ECMO provides a way to bypass the lungs and oxygenate the blood directly, allowing for enhanced gas exchange and support for severely compromised respiratory function. Therefore, in this critical situation, prioritizing the recommendation for ECMO can offer the patient the best chance of improving oxygenation and survival.
Question 2 of 9
A patient is prescribed an antipsychotic medication for the management of bipolar disorder. Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor closely in the patient?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Antipsychotic medications can cause metabolic side effects, including hyperglycemia (high blood sugar). Patients with bipolar disorder who are prescribed antipsychotic medications are at risk for developing new-onset diabetes or exacerbating preexisting diabetes. Monitoring blood glucose levels is essential to detect hyperglycemia early and prevent complications such as diabetic ketoacidosis. While hypertension, hypotension, and hypernatremia are possible side effects of certain medications, they are not typically associated with antipsychotic medications commonly used in the management of bipolar disorder. Hyperglycemia is a serious concern in this population due to the risk of developing diabetes or worsening of existing diabetes.
Question 3 of 9
As a newly 1icensed nurse employed in a tertiary hospital, you are required to attend Continuing Professional Development (CPD) program. When the training program is for the enrichment of nurses in the hospital, it is called __________.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In-service training programs are specifically designed to provide continuing education and professional development for employees within a particular organization, in this case, a hospital. These programs are tailored to meet the needs of the staff and enhance their skills and knowledge within their work environment. Since the CPD program in the tertiary hospital is aimed at enriching and supporting the growth of the nurses' knowledge and expertise within the hospital setting, it falls under the category of an in-service training program.
Question 4 of 9
A patient presents with a painful, vesicular rash in a dermatomal distribution on the left thorax. The patient reports a history of chickenpox during childhood. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The presentation of a painful, vesicular rash in a dermatomal distribution on the left thorax, specifically in a patient with a history of chickenpox, is most suggestive of herpes zoster, commonly known as shingles. Herpes zoster is caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus, the same virus responsible for chickenpox. After a person recovers from chickenpox, the virus remains dormant in the nerve cells and can reactivate years later to cause shingles. The rash in herpes zoster typically progresses through different stages, including red patches leading to fluid-filled blisters. The characteristic rash typically appears unilaterally and is usually preceded by pain, burning, or tingling in the affected area. Unlike herpes simplex virus infection, which can cause similar lesions but is not typically localized to a specific dermatome, herpes zoster presents as a distinct unilateral cluster of vesicles along
Question 5 of 9
A pregnant woman presents with painless, bright red vaginal bleeding at 34 weeks gestation. On examination, the cervix is found to be closed. Which of the following conditions is the most likely cause of these symptoms?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Placenta previa is a condition where the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, leading to painless vaginal bleeding during pregnancy. In the scenario described, the painless, bright red vaginal bleeding at 34 weeks gestation with a closed cervix is classic for placenta previa. This condition is more common in the third trimester and can be diagnosed through ultrasound. It is important to manage placenta previa carefully to prevent complications such as severe bleeding, preterm birth, and maternal/fetal distress.
Question 6 of 9
A document that lists the medical treatment a person chooses to refuse if unable to make decisions is the:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A living will is a legal document that allows an individual to express their wishes regarding medical treatment in the event they become unable to make decisions. It specifically outlines the medical treatments a person chooses to refuse or accept under certain circumstances. It is important to differentiate a living will from a durable power of attorney, which designates someone to make healthcare decisions on behalf of the individual when they are unable to do so, and advance directives, which encompass both a living will and a durable power of attorney for healthcare. The living will serves as a guide for healthcare professionals and family members to honor the individual's preferences for medical care.
Question 7 of 9
The mother of the family asked Nurse Emma how to apply the anti -scabies lotion. The nurse should teach the family to apply anti -scabies lotion to _________.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct way to apply anti-scabies lotion is to cover all skin areas, not just the affected areas or red areas. Scabies is a contagious skin condition caused by mites burrowing into the skin, so applying the lotion to all skin areas helps to eliminate the mites and prevent reinfestation. It is important to follow the instructions provided by the healthcare professional for proper application and treatment of scabies.
Question 8 of 9
A patient with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed tiotropium (Spiriva) inhaler. Which instruction should the nurse include in patient education about tiotropium inhaler use?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Tiotropium (Spiriva) is an anticholinergic bronchodilator used for the management of COPD. A common side effect of anticholinergic medications is dry mouth. Rinsing the mouth with water after using the inhaler can help reduce the risk of developing oral thrush or other mouth infections due to dryness. This instruction helps promote good oral hygiene and decreases the potential side effects associated with tiotropium inhaler use. This teaching is important for patients to follow to ensure their overall health and well-being while using the medication.
Question 9 of 9
The reasons for the nurse wishing to enhance his/her communication skill is to be able to establish Rapport, EXCEPT
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The primary goal of enhancing communication skills for a nurse is to establish rapport with patients, which can lead to better outcomes, increased patient satisfaction, and improved quality of care. Generating a threat between the nurse and the patient is counterproductive to building rapport and does not align with the intention of enhancing communication skills in healthcare settings.