ATI RN
Foundations and Adult Health Nursing Study Guide Answers Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient in the ICU develops acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) with severe hypoxemia refractory to conventional oxygen therapy. What intervention should the healthcare team prioritize to improve the patient's oxygenation?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In the scenario described, the patient is experiencing severe hypoxemia refractory to conventional oxygen therapy, indicating a need for advanced respiratory support. When a patient with ARDS fails to respond to conservative management, including mechanical ventilation strategies, prone positioning, and recruitment maneuvers, the next step may involve extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO). ECMO provides a way to bypass the lungs and oxygenate the blood directly, allowing for enhanced gas exchange and support for severely compromised respiratory function. Therefore, in this critical situation, prioritizing the recommendation for ECMO can offer the patient the best chance of improving oxygenation and survival.
Question 2 of 9
Before finishing the check up, which of the following principles is NOT included among the principles of guidance in handling Richard?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The principles of guidance in handling Richard involve understanding and addressing the behaviors and needs of the child, such as controlling temper tantrums, basing expectations within the child's limitations, and acceptance of certain behaviors like masturbation as normal but to be discouraged in public. However, reinforcing the correct use of language is not typically included as a principle specifically in handling Richard. Therefore, this choice is NOT included among the principles of guidance in this context.
Question 3 of 9
A patient receiving palliative care for end-stage chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) experiences chronic cough and excessive sputum production. What intervention should the palliative nurse prioritize to address the patient's symptoms?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Encouraging the patient to practice controlled coughing techniques would be the most appropriate intervention to address the symptoms of chronic cough and excessive sputum production in a patient with end-stage COPD receiving palliative care. Controlled coughing techniques can help the patient effectively clear respiratory secretions and improve airway clearance without the need for additional medications or interventions. This approach focuses on optimizing the patient's ability to manage their symptoms and maintain comfort, which aligns with the goals of palliative care. Administering bronchodilator medications, prescribing mucolytic medications, or referring the patient to a respiratory therapist for breathing exercises may have limited effectiveness in this advanced stage of the disease, and controlled coughing techniques would be a more practical and patient-centered approach to symptom management.
Question 4 of 9
Nurse Nora monitors the patient, knowing that which finding indicates an adequate contraction pattern?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: An adequate contraction pattern during labor is characterized by regular contractions occurring at a frequency of three to 5 contractions in a 10-minute period, with resultant cervical dilatation. This pattern indicates efficient uterine activity that is helping to progress labor by dilating the cervix. In option A, the contractions are occurring at an appropriate frequency and are resulting in cervical dilatation, making it the correct choice for indicating an adequate contraction pattern.
Question 5 of 9
A patient presents with fever, chills, headache, and myalgia after returning from a camping trip. Laboratory tests reveal thrombocytopenia and leukopenia. Which of the following is the most likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The most likely causative agent in this scenario is Plasmodium falciparum, which is the parasite that causes malaria. The symptoms of fever, chills, headache, and myalgia following a camping trip are highly suggestive of malaria, especially if the patient has thrombocytopenia and leukopenia. Plasmodium falciparum is known to cause severe malaria with complications such as thrombocytopenia and leukopenia. The other options, Trypanosoma cruzi, Borrelia burgdorferi, and Leishmania donovani, do not typically present with all of the symptoms described and are not associated with the laboratory findings of thrombocytopenia and leukopenia.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the following imaging test that uses transducer will be likely be ordered by the physician to detect gallstones?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: An abdominal ultrasound is the imaging test that uses a transducer and is most commonly ordered by physicians to detect gallstones. This non-invasive procedure allows the physician to visualize the gallbladder and detect any presence of gallstones. The transducer emits sound waves that bounce off the gallstones, creating images that can be seen on a screen. This imaging test is safe, reliable, and effective in diagnosing gallstones without the use of radiation or contrast dye.
Question 7 of 9
A patient with a history of coronary artery disease is prescribed aspirin for secondary prevention. Which adverse effect is a potential concern with long-term aspirin therapy?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Long-term aspirin therapy, especially at higher doses, can increase the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Aspirin irreversibly inhibits cyclooxygenase enzyme, which is essential for the production of prostaglandins involved in mucosal protection of the gastrointestinal tract. Without these protective prostaglandins, the stomach lining becomes more susceptible to damage from gastric acid, leading to potential ulcer formation and bleeding. Patients with a history of coronary artery disease may be on aspirin for secondary prevention, and it is crucial to monitor for signs of bleeding such as black, tarry stools or abdominal pain. The benefits of aspirin in preventing cardiovascular events need to be weighed against the risk of adverse effects like gastrointestinal bleeding, especially in patients on long-term therapy.
Question 8 of 9
Which of the following is a common complication associated with long-term use of corticosteroids in orthopedic patients?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Osteoporosis is a common complication associated with long-term use of corticosteroids in orthopedic patients. Corticosteroids can lead to bone loss by inhibiting bone formation and promoting bone resorption, resulting in decreased bone mineral density and increased risk of fractures. Therefore, patients on long-term corticosteroid therapy, especially in high doses, should be monitored closely for osteoporosis and receive appropriate preventive measures such as calcium, vitamin D supplementation, and bisphosphonates to mitigate the risk of bone thinning and fractures.
Question 9 of 9
The lecturer reminded the committee members that bias is an influence that distorts study results. In quantitative research, which will eliminate bias?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In quantitative research, randomness plays a crucial role in eliminating bias. Random sampling ensures that every individual or element in the population has an equal chance of being selected for the study. This helps in reducing the possibility of bias creeping into the results due to selective sampling or favoritism towards certain groups. By using random sampling methods, researchers can increase the generalizability of their findings and have a higher level of confidence that the results are unbiased and representative of the entire population. Therefore, randomness is a key mechanism to eliminate bias in quantitative research studies.