ATI RN
Foundations and Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
A patient in the ICU develops acute myocardial infarction (MI) with cardiogenic shock. What intervention should the healthcare team prioritize to manage the patient's shock?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In a patient with acute myocardial infarction (MI) complicated by cardiogenic shock, the primary intervention to manage shock is emergent percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI). PCI is a procedure performed to restore blood flow in an occluded coronary artery that is causing the MI. By opening up the blocked artery and restoring blood flow to the heart muscle, PCI can help reduce myocardial damage, improve cardiac function, and stabilize the patient's condition. Prompt reperfusion via PCI is crucial in the setting of cardiogenic shock to improve survival outcomes and reduce the risk of further complications. Administering inotropic medications, initiating therapeutic hypothermia, or recommending anticoagulant therapy may be components of management in specific cases but are not the primary intervention for managing shock in a patient with acute MI and cardiogenic shock.
Question 2 of 5
A patient presents with knee pain and instability following a twisting injury during sports activity. MRI reveals a tear involving the anterior cruciate ligament (ACL). Which surgical procedure is commonly performed to reconstruct the ACL?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction is a common surgical procedure performed to repair a torn ACL. This procedure involves replacing the damaged ACL with a graft, often using a portion of the patient's own patellar tendon, hamstring tendon, or an allograft (donor tissue). ACL reconstruction is typically indicated for patients with ACL tears that result in knee instability and functional limitations, especially in active individuals who participate in sports or activities requiring pivoting and cutting movements. Arthroscopic surgery is commonly used to perform ACL reconstruction, allowing for smaller incisions and faster recovery compared to traditional open surgeries. Post-operative rehabilitation and physical therapy are crucial components of the recovery process following ACL reconstruction surgery to optimize outcomes and return to pre-injury activity levels.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following conditions is characterized by degenerative changes in the intervertebral discs, leading to narrowing of the disc space and osteophyte formation?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Spondylosis is a condition characterized by degenerative changes in the intervertebral discs, leading to narrowing of the disc space and the formation of osteophytes (bone spurs). This degenerative process commonly occurs with aging and can cause symptoms such as neck or back pain, stiffness, and reduced range of motion. Spondylosis is a common finding on imaging studies like X-rays and MRI scans in individuals over the age of 50 and is a natural part of the aging process of the spine.
Question 4 of 5
A patient with chronic kidney disease presents with progressively worsening anemia and elevated serum phosphate levels. Which medication is commonly prescribed to reduce serum phosphate levels in patients with chronic kidney disease?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Sevelamer is a medication commonly prescribed to reduce serum phosphate levels in patients with chronic kidney disease. Sevelamer is a phosphate binder that works by binding to dietary phosphate in the gut, preventing its absorption into the bloodstream. By reducing serum phosphate levels, sevelamer helps manage complications associated with hyperphosphatemia in chronic kidney disease patients, such as mineral and bone disorders. Other medications like epoetin alfa are used to treat anemia commonly seen in chronic kidney disease patients, while cinacalcet is used to manage secondary hyperparathyroidism. Allopurinol, on the other hand, is used to treat gout by reducing uric acid levels and is not indicated for reducing serum phosphate levels in chronic kidney disease patients.
Question 5 of 5
A patient with renal failure presents with confusion, seizures, asterixis, and a sweet odor to the breath. Laboratory findings reveal severe metabolic acidosis, hyperkalemia, and elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The patient's presentation with renal failure, confusion, seizures, asterixis, and a sweet odor to the breath, along with laboratory findings of severe metabolic acidosis, hyperkalemia, and elevated BUN and creatinine levels, is consistent with uremic encephalopathy. Uremic encephalopathy is a neurological complication of acute or chronic renal failure resulting from the buildup of uremic toxins in the blood, leading to various neurological symptoms such as confusion and seizures. The sweet odor to the breath can be attributed to the presence of urea, a waste product that accumulates in renal failure. Other metabolic abnormalities like hyperkalemia and severe metabolic acidosis are also common in renal failure. It is crucial to promptly recognize and manage uremic encephalopathy to prevent further neurological complications.