ATI RN
Foundations and Adult Health Nursing Study Guide Answers Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient in the ICU develops acute kidney injury (AKI) secondary to sepsis. What intervention should the healthcare team prioritize to manage the patient's renal function?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In a patient with acute kidney injury (AKI) secondary to sepsis in the ICU, the healthcare team should prioritize initiating continuous veno-venous hemofiltration (CVVH) for renal replacement therapy. CVVH is a form of continuous renal replacement therapy that helps support renal function by removing waste products, excess fluids, and electrolytes from the blood while providing hemodynamic stability. This intervention is crucial in managing fluid overload, electrolyte disturbances, and uremia associated with AKI in critically ill patients. It can also help improve overall outcomes and prevent further complications related to renal dysfunction in this setting. Administering diuretics, implementing fluid restriction, or performing a renal biopsy may not directly address the acute renal failure and may not provide the necessary renal support needed in this urgent situation.
Question 2 of 9
A 30-year-old woman presents with cyclic pelvic pain, dysmenorrhea, and infertility. On pelvic ultrasound, a chocolate cyst is visualized within the ovary. Which of the following conditions is most likely to be responsible for these findings?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The scenario described in the question is most indicative of endometriosis. Endometriosis is a gynecological condition in which tissue similar to the lining of the uterus grows outside of the uterus. Classic symptoms of endometriosis include cyclic pelvic pain, dysmenorrhea (painful periods), and infertility. The presence of a "chocolate cyst" (also known as an endometrioma) within the ovary on pelvic ultrasound is a characteristic finding in endometriosis. These cysts are filled with old blood, giving them a dark, chocolate-like appearance on imaging. Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) typically presents with irregular periods, signs of hyperandrogenism, and multiple small follicles on ultrasound. Ovarian torsion and ovarian cyst rupture would present with acute-onset symptoms and may not necessarily be associated with cyclic pelvic pain and dysmenorrhea as described in the
Question 3 of 9
A patient is prescribed a beta-adrenergic agonist for the management of asthma. Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor closely in the patient?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Beta-adrenergic agonists stimulate beta-adrenergic receptors in the heart, leading to an increase in heart rate (tachycardia). This is a common adverse effect associated with the use of beta-adrenergic agonists in the management of conditions such as asthma. Monitoring for tachycardia is important because it can potentially lead to other complications such as palpitations, arrhythmias, and exacerbation of underlying cardiovascular conditions. It is essential for the nurse to closely monitor the patient for any signs or symptoms of tachycardia and report any abnormalities to the healthcare provider promptly to ensure appropriate management and prevent further complications.
Question 4 of 9
A patient with chronic kidney disease presents with periorbital edema, hypertension, and proteinuria. Laboratory findings reveal elevated serum creatinine and urea levels, hyperkalemia, and metabolic acidosis. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The constellation of symptoms presented (periorbital edema, hypertension, proteinuria) along with the laboratory findings (elevated creatinine and urea levels, hyperkalemia, metabolic acidosis) are classical signs of chronic kidney disease (CKD). In CKD, the kidneys gradually lose their function over time, leading to impaired filtration of waste products and electrolyte imbalance. The presence of hypertension and proteinuria are common in CKD due to the compromised renal function. Additionally, elevated serum creatinine and urea levels, hyperkalemia, and metabolic acidosis are indicative of kidney dysfunction.
Question 5 of 9
Which of the following imaging test that uses transducer will be likely be ordered by the physician to detect gallstones?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: An abdominal ultrasound is the imaging test that uses a transducer and is most commonly ordered by physicians to detect gallstones. This non-invasive procedure allows the physician to visualize the gallbladder and detect any presence of gallstones. The transducer emits sound waves that bounce off the gallstones, creating images that can be seen on a screen. This imaging test is safe, reliable, and effective in diagnosing gallstones without the use of radiation or contrast dye.
Question 6 of 9
A patient presents with fever, chills, headache, and myalgia after returning from a trip to sub-Saharan Africa. Laboratory tests reveal intraerythrocytic ring forms and trophozoites on blood smear examination. Which of the following is the most likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The patient's symptoms of fever, chills, headache, and myalgia after returning from sub-Saharan Africa are consistent with malaria. Intraerythrocytic ring forms and trophozoites observed on blood smear examination are characteristic of Plasmodium species, particularly Plasmodium falciparum, which is the most common and deadliest species causing malaria in sub-Saharan Africa. Plasmodium falciparum can lead to severe complications, such as cerebral malaria, if not promptly treated. Trypanosoma cruzi causes Chagas disease, not malaria. Borrelia burgdorferi is responsible for Lyme disease, which typically presents with a different set of symptoms like erythema migrans rash. Leishmania donovani causes visceral leishmaniasis, not malaria.
Question 7 of 9
A patient presents with a painful, vesicular rash in a dermatomal distribution on the left thorax. The patient reports a history of chickenpox during childhood. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The presentation of a painful, vesicular rash in a dermatomal distribution on the left thorax, specifically in a patient with a history of chickenpox, is most suggestive of herpes zoster, commonly known as shingles. Herpes zoster is caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus, the same virus responsible for chickenpox. After a person recovers from chickenpox, the virus remains dormant in the nerve cells and can reactivate years later to cause shingles. The rash in herpes zoster typically progresses through different stages, including red patches leading to fluid-filled blisters. The characteristic rash typically appears unilaterally and is usually preceded by pain, burning, or tingling in the affected area. Unlike herpes simplex virus infection, which can cause similar lesions but is not typically localized to a specific dermatome, herpes zoster presents as a distinct unilateral cluster of vesicles along
Question 8 of 9
A patient in the ICU develops acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) with severe hypoxemia refractory to conventional oxygen therapy. What intervention should the healthcare team prioritize to improve the patient's oxygenation?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In the scenario described, the patient is experiencing severe hypoxemia refractory to conventional oxygen therapy, indicating a need for advanced respiratory support. When a patient with ARDS fails to respond to conservative management, including mechanical ventilation strategies, prone positioning, and recruitment maneuvers, the next step may involve extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO). ECMO provides a way to bypass the lungs and oxygenate the blood directly, allowing for enhanced gas exchange and support for severely compromised respiratory function. Therefore, in this critical situation, prioritizing the recommendation for ECMO can offer the patient the best chance of improving oxygenation and survival.
Question 9 of 9
When a patient is admitted to the OB ward with complains of dizziness and body weakness, this is an example of______.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: When a patient is admitted to the OB ward with complaints of dizziness and body weakness, this information pertains to what the patient is feeling or experiencing, which is subjective data. Subjective data is based on the patient's symptoms, feelings, and experiences as reported by the patient themselves. In this case, dizziness and body weakness are subjective symptoms described by the patient, and they cannot be objectively measured or quantified. It is essential for healthcare providers to consider subjective data along with objective data (measurable and observable signs) when assessing and diagnosing a patient's condition.