A patient in the ICU develops acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) characterized by worsening dyspnea and increased sputum production. What intervention should the healthcare team prioritize to manage the patient's exacerbation?

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Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

A patient in the ICU develops acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) characterized by worsening dyspnea and increased sputum production. What intervention should the healthcare team prioritize to manage the patient's exacerbation?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Initiate non-invasive positive pressure ventilation (NIPPV) for respiratory support. In acute exacerbations of COPD, NIPPV helps improve ventilation and oxygenation, reducing the work of breathing and preventing the need for intubation. This intervention is a priority as it can rapidly stabilize the patient's respiratory status. A: Administering bronchodilator medications is important in COPD management, but in severe exacerbations, NIPPV takes precedence. C: Arterial blood gas analysis is important for assessing oxygenation and ventilation status, but it does not directly address the acute respiratory distress. D: Chest physiotherapy can help with airway clearance in COPD, but in acute exacerbations, respiratory support with NIPPV is more urgent.

Question 2 of 9

Which of the following situation is an example of incongruent message?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step 1: Incongruent message occurs when verbal and nonverbal communication do not align. Step 2: Choice C states "When what the nurse says and does do not agree," indicating a lack of alignment. Step 3: This inconsistency can lead to confusion or mistrust in communication. Step 4: Choices A, B, and D all describe situations with alignment between words and actions, making them congruent. Summary: Choice C is correct as it exemplifies incongruent communication, while Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they describe congruent messages.

Question 3 of 9

In nursing, Nurse Trining explained that the MAIN goal of conducting research is to______.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: establish a credit body of evidence to support and improve the delivery of care. Conducting research in nursing aims to generate a robust evidence base to inform and enhance the quality of care provided to patients. This evidence helps in identifying best practices, improving patient outcomes, and advancing the nursing profession as a whole. Choice A is incorrect because the main goal of research is not to solely justify the role of nurses, but rather to improve care delivery. Choice C is incorrect as the goal is not to justify an oversupply of nurses, but to address healthcare needs effectively. Choice D is incorrect because the focus of nursing research is on nursing-related issues, not non-nursing problems.

Question 4 of 9

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for surgical repair of myelomeningocele? To ____________.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The primary reason for surgical repair of myelomeningocele is to correct the neurologic defect. This is because myelomeningocele is a type of neural tube defect where the spinal cord and its protective covering do not close properly. Surgical repair aims to close the opening in the spinal cord to prevent further damage, improve neurological function, and reduce the risk of complications such as paralysis and infection. The other choices are incorrect as they are not the primary goal of the surgery. Preventing infection (Choice A) is important but not the primary reason. Seizure disorders (Choice C) and hydrocephalus (Choice D) may be associated complications but are not the main purpose of the surgical repair.

Question 5 of 9

The physician inserted a chest tube drainage to Mr. Alda in order to help re-expand the lungs. Which of the following should you prepare FIRST as a nurse in case of emergency when the tube is accidentally disconnected?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: A - sterile clamps Rationale: 1. **Immediate action**: Sterile clamps are essential to clamp the chest tube to prevent air from entering the pleural space. 2. **Prevent lung collapse**: Clamping the tube will prevent lung collapse and maintain positive pressure in the pleural space. 3. **Buy time**: By clamping the tube, you buy time to properly reattach the tube or secure it with a new connection. 4. **Safety**: Sterile clamps are a quick and effective solution to prevent a potentially life-threatening situation. Summary of other choices: B: Sterile dressing - Not the first priority as the immediate concern is preventing air from entering the pleural space. C: Another chest tube - Not necessary initially as clamping can buy time to reattach the disconnected tube. D: A bottle of sterile water - Not needed for emergency management of a disconnected chest tube.

Question 6 of 9

A patient is prescribed a statin medication for lipid-lowering therapy. Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor closely in the patient?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Muscle pain or weakness. Statins can cause muscle-related side effects, including rhabdomyolysis, a severe condition that can lead to muscle pain and weakness. Monitoring for these symptoms is crucial to prevent serious complications. B: Dry cough is not a common side effect of statins. C: Hypertension is not directly associated with statin use. D: Hyperkalemia is not a typical adverse effect of statins.

Question 7 of 9

A patient expresses concerns about the financial implications of their treatment plan. What is the nurse's best response?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the nurse's role is to address the holistic needs of the patient, including financial concerns. Providing information about financial assistance programs and resources shows empathy and supports the patient in making informed decisions. Choice A is incorrect because dismissing the patient's concerns can lead to a breakdown in trust and communication. Choice C is incorrect as ignoring the patient's concerns is not addressing the patient's needs. Choice D is incorrect because financial concerns are valid and should be considered in decision-making.

Question 8 of 9

To begin your discussion, you explain to her that the endocrine glands include, which of the following?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because it includes all the major endocrine glands: pituitary, thyroid, parathyroid, adrenals, pancreatic islets, and hypothalamus. The pituitary gland is known as the "master gland" as it controls other endocrine glands. The thyroid gland regulates metabolism, while the parathyroid glands regulate calcium levels. The adrenal glands produce hormones involved in stress response. Pancreatic islets produce insulin and glucagon. The hypothalamus plays a key role in hormone regulation. Choice B is incorrect because it includes ovaries and testes, which are not endocrine glands. Choice C is incorrect because it omits the hypothalamus. Choice D is incorrect because it includes ovaries and testes which are not endocrine glands.

Question 9 of 9

Before admitting the client, you should FIRST make sure that:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because obtaining the client's own consent is the first step in ensuring the client's autonomy and right to make decisions about their own care. This is in line with ethical principles of informed consent. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because consent should come directly from the client, not from a spouse, family member, or social worker. Choice B violates the principle of individual autonomy, choice C is not the priority before admission, and choice D is not the appropriate person to provide consent.

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