A patient in the ICU develops acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) characterized by worsening dyspnea and increased sputum production. What intervention should the healthcare team prioritize to manage the patient's exacerbation?

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Question 1 of 5

A patient in the ICU develops acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) characterized by worsening dyspnea and increased sputum production. What intervention should the healthcare team prioritize to manage the patient's exacerbation?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Initiate non-invasive positive pressure ventilation (NIPPV) for respiratory support. In acute exacerbations of COPD, NIPPV helps improve ventilation and oxygenation, reducing the work of breathing and preventing the need for intubation. This intervention is a priority as it can rapidly stabilize the patient's respiratory status. A: Administering bronchodilator medications is important in COPD management, but in severe exacerbations, NIPPV takes precedence. C: Arterial blood gas analysis is important for assessing oxygenation and ventilation status, but it does not directly address the acute respiratory distress. D: Chest physiotherapy can help with airway clearance in COPD, but in acute exacerbations, respiratory support with NIPPV is more urgent.

Question 2 of 5

A patient admitted to the ICU develops acute delirium with agitation and hallucinations. What intervention should the healthcare team prioritize to manage the patient's delirium?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Implement environmental modifications to promote sleep hygiene. Delirium is often triggered by environmental factors like noise, light, and disruption of sleep. By optimizing the environment for rest and minimizing stimuli, the patient's delirium can improve. This approach focuses on addressing the root cause rather than just managing symptoms. Choice B is incorrect because antipsychotic medications can worsen delirium and are not recommended as first-line treatment. Choice C is not the priority as ruling out focal deficits may be important but does not directly address the delirium. Choice D is incorrect as benzodiazepines can exacerbate delirium and are not recommended due to their potential to worsen cognitive function.

Question 3 of 5

Which of the following conditions is characterized by inflammation of the plantar fascia, resulting in heel pain that is typically worse with the first steps in the morning?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Plantar fasciitis is the correct answer. It is characterized by inflammation of the plantar fascia, leading to heel pain, especially in the morning. The plantar fascia is a band of tissue that connects the heel bone to the toes. The pain is usually worse with the first steps after resting. Achilles tendinitis involves inflammation of the Achilles tendon, which connects the calf muscles to the heel bone, causing pain at the back of the heel and ankle. Morton's neuroma is a condition involving a thickening of tissue around a nerve in the ball of the foot, leading to sharp, burning pain in the toes. Stress fracture of the calcaneus refers to a small crack in the heel bone due to repetitive stress or overuse, resulting in heel pain that may worsen with activity, but not specifically with the first steps in the morning.

Question 4 of 5

A patient presents with acute onset of shoulder pain and limited range of motion after a fall onto an outstretched hand. Physical examination reveals tenderness over the greater tuberosity of the humerus and pain with passive abduction and external rotation of the shoulder. Which of the following conditions is most likely?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Rotator cuff tear. The presentation of acute shoulder pain and limited range of motion after a fall onto an outstretched hand, along with tenderness over the greater tuberosity and pain with passive abduction and external rotation, is classic for a rotator cuff tear. The mechanism of injury and physical exam findings are consistent with this condition. B: Glenohumeral dislocation typically presents with a visibly deformed shoulder and loss of normal shoulder contour. C: Acromioclavicular joint separation would present with tenderness over the AC joint rather than the greater tuberosity, and typically involves a history of direct trauma to the shoulder. D: Proximal humerus fracture would present with more diffuse shoulder pain and swelling, and not specific tenderness over the greater tuberosity.

Question 5 of 5

A patient with a history of nephrolithiasis presents with sudden-onset severe colicky flank pain radiating to the groin. On physical examination, there is tenderness over the costovertebral angle and hematuria. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Renal colic due to ureteral calculus. The sudden-onset severe colicky flank pain radiating to the groin along with tenderness over the costovertebral angle and hematuria are classic symptoms of kidney stones (ureteral calculus). The pain results from the obstruction of urine flow by the stone, leading to increased pressure and spasm in the ureter. Acute pyelonephritis (choice A) presents with fever, chills, and systemic symptoms. Renal artery embolism (choice B) typically presents with acute onset severe flank pain but is associated with risk factors like atrial fibrillation. Renal infarction (choice D) presents with sudden-onset severe flank pain but is less likely than ureteral calculus in a patient with a history of nephrolithiasis.

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