ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient in the ICU develops acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) characterized by worsening dyspnea and increased sputum production. What intervention should the healthcare team prioritize to manage the patient's exacerbation?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Initiate non-invasive positive pressure ventilation (NIPPV) for respiratory support. In acute exacerbations of COPD, NIPPV helps improve ventilation and oxygenation, reducing the work of breathing and preventing the need for intubation. This intervention is a priority as it can rapidly stabilize the patient's respiratory status. A: Administering bronchodilator medications is important in COPD management, but in severe exacerbations, NIPPV takes precedence. C: Arterial blood gas analysis is important for assessing oxygenation and ventilation status, but it does not directly address the acute respiratory distress. D: Chest physiotherapy can help with airway clearance in COPD, but in acute exacerbations, respiratory support with NIPPV is more urgent.
Question 2 of 9
To achieve organized work flow in the unit the staff must be aware of the head nurse's role. What is the PRIMARY purpose of supervision and delegation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Enhances the delivery of quality nursing care. Supervision and delegation are essential in ensuring efficient and effective healthcare delivery. By supervising and delegating tasks appropriately, the head nurse can ensure that staff members are performing their duties competently, which ultimately leads to improved quality of patient care. Supervision helps in monitoring staff performance, providing feedback, and offering guidance when needed. Delegation ensures that tasks are allocated to the right staff members based on their skills and abilities, optimizing the workflow. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the primary purpose of supervision and delegation, which is to enhance the quality of nursing care through effective oversight and task allocation.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse specialist explains that chemotherapyis extremely toxic to the bone marrow and the patient may develop thrombocytopenia. What is the priority goal of the nurse? To take precautions to control _______.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bleeding. Chemotherapy can lead to low platelet counts (thrombocytopenia), increasing the risk of bleeding. The priority goal of the nurse is to prevent bleeding by taking precautions such as avoiding invasive procedures, using soft toothbrushes, and monitoring for signs of bleeding. Infection (B) is important but not the priority as bleeding can be life-threatening. Hypotension (C) is not directly related to thrombocytopenia. Diarrhea (D) is a potential side effect of chemotherapy but is not the priority when considering thrombocytopenia.
Question 4 of 9
A patient presents with muscle weakness and fatigue. Upon further examination, it is revealed that the patient has decreased acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Myasthenia gravis. In myasthenia gravis, there is a decrease in acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction, leading to muscle weakness and fatigue. This occurs due to autoimmune destruction of these receptors. ALS (B) affects motor neurons, not acetylcholine receptors. Guillain-Barre syndrome (C) is an autoimmune disorder affecting peripheral nerves, not neuromuscular junctions. Muscular dystrophy (D) is a genetic disorder causing muscle degeneration, not affecting acetylcholine receptors.
Question 5 of 9
At the pre-Entry phase, which of the following is the FIRST step in the CO-PAR process
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Create a core group. In the CO-PAR process, creating a core group is the first step in the pre-Entry phase as it establishes a team of committed individuals who will lead the participatory action research. This core group will provide leadership, coordination, and represent the diversity of the community. Surveying the community (choice A) comes after forming the core group to gather information. Training the technical working group (choice B) and holding a community assembly (choice C) are subsequent steps in the process after the core group is established.
Question 6 of 9
Norse Sophie checks the gauge of the patient ' s intravenous catheter. Which is the smallest gauge catheter that the nurse can use to administer blood?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 20-Gauge. The smaller the gauge number, the larger the diameter of the catheter. Blood transfusions typically require a larger catheter size to prevent hemolysis and ensure proper flow. A 20-Gauge catheter is larger than 22-Gauge, 18-Gauge, and 12-Gauge, making it suitable for administering blood. 22-Gauge is too small and can cause hemolysis, 18-Gauge is smaller than the recommended size for blood transfusions, and 12-Gauge is too large and can cause damage to the vein.
Question 7 of 9
A patient with a history of stroke is prescribed clopidogrel (Plavix) for secondary prevention of thrombotic events. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor closely during clopidogrel therapy?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Platelet count. Platelet count should be monitored closely during clopidogrel therapy because it works by inhibiting platelet aggregation, reducing the risk of clot formation. Monitoring platelet count helps assess the drug's effectiveness and prevent potential complications like bleeding or clotting events. Prothrombin time (A), activated partial thromboplastin time (B), and international normalized ratio (D) are tests that primarily assess the coagulation factors and are not directly affected by clopidogrel therapy, making them less relevant for monitoring this specific medication.
Question 8 of 9
Which of the following actions is recommended for managing a patient with a suspected snakebite?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Transporting the patient to a medical facility for antivenom administration. This is recommended because antivenom is the definitive treatment for snakebites. Tourniquets (choice A) can worsen tissue damage and should be avoided. Elevating the limb (choice B) may not prevent venom spread. Making an incision (choice C) can lead to infection and increased venom absorption. Antivenom administration at a medical facility is crucial for proper management of snakebites.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the indicators BEST describes an effective outcome of school nursing programs and initiatives.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because zero absenteeism and tardiness of pupils indicate that the school nursing programs are effectively promoting student health and well-being. This outcome shows that students are healthy, engaged, and present in school, which is a key goal of school nursing initiatives. Choice B is incorrect as teachers being observers does not directly measure the effectiveness of the nursing programs. Choice C is incorrect as limited information hinders the success and impact of school health initiatives. Choice D is incorrect as constant visits and phone calls from parents may not necessarily reflect the success of the nursing programs.