A patient in cardiac arrest is being resuscitated. You identify ventricular fibrillation on the cardiac monitor. CPR is ongoing. What is the next immediate intervention?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct immediate intervention is to perform a defibrillation shock (Choice B). Ventricular fibrillation is a shockable rhythm, meaning it requires immediate defibrillation to restore normal heart rhythm. Defibrillation is the first-line treatment for ventricular fibrillation during cardiac arrest, as it aims to depolarize the heart and allow the normal pacemaker cells to resume control. Administering epinephrine (Choice A) is important but should follow defibrillation. Establishing an advanced airway (Choice C) and administering amiodarone (Choice D) are secondary interventions after achieving successful defibrillation.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: ST segment. The ST segment on an ECG tracing represents the early part of ventricular repolarization. It begins at the end of the QRS complex and ends at the beginning of the T wave. This segment reflects the time when the ventricles are preparing to relax and reset for the next cycle. The PR interval (B) represents the time for the electrical impulse to travel from the atria to the ventricles. The QT interval (C) represents the total time for ventricular depolarization and repolarization. The QRS complex (D) represents ventricular depolarization.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because in a severely hypothermic patient in cardiac arrest, the decreased metabolism and altered drug distribution make standard medication intervals ineffective. By spacing IV medications at longer intervals, there is a reduced risk of toxicity due to the slowed drug metabolism. Option A is incorrect because simply administering warm fluids and initiating rewarming procedures does not address the altered drug metabolism in hypothermia. Option C is incorrect because it generalizes that the patient will not respond to cardiac medication, which may not be true in all cases. Option D is incorrect because higher than normal doses of cardiac medications can increase the risk of toxicity without providing any significant benefit due to the altered drug metabolism in hypothermia.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Subdural hematoma. A subdural hematoma is a collection of blood between the dura mater and arachnoid mater layers of the meninges. This type of injury typically occurs due to acceleration-deceleration forces causing tearing of bridging veins, common in closed head injuries. The symptoms described (headache, confusion, visual disturbances) are consistent with the presentation of a subdural hematoma. Other choices are less likely: A) Coup-contra-coup injury involves impact forces causing brain injury at the site of impact and opposite side, typically seen in motor vehicle accidents. B) Diffuse axonal injury is caused by shearing forces leading to widespread damage throughout the brain, often resulting in a comatose state. D) Epidural hematoma is a collection of blood between the dura mater and the skull, usually due to arterial bleeding, and is more commonly associated with a lucid interval followed by rapid deterioration, but

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because the transferring doctor is in the best position to assess the patient's needs and resources available. This ensures appropriate care and resources are available for the patient's condition. Choice A is incorrect as it focuses on staff availability rather than patient needs. Choice B is incorrect as it only addresses specific injuries, not overall care needs. Choice D is incorrect as hospital administration may not have the medical expertise to determine appropriate care for the patient.