A patient ill with amebiasis was prescribed a certain drug. The use of alcohol together with this drug is contraindicated because the drug inhibits metabolism of ethyl alcohol. What drug is it?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Metronidazole is known to inhibit aldehyde dehydrogenase, an enzyme involved in alcohol metabolism. 2. Inhibition of this enzyme leads to accumulation of acetaldehyde, causing unpleasant symptoms when alcohol is consumed. 3. This reaction is known as the disulfiram-like reaction. 4. Reserpine, Clonidine, and Diazepam do not have this specific mechanism of action. Summary: - Option A (Metronidazole) is correct due to its inhibition of alcohol metabolism. - Options B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not exhibit this interaction with alcohol metabolism.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Formation of CD4+ cells. In autoimmune reactions, CD4+ cells are actually involved in the immune response. Here's the rationale: 1. CD4+ cells are helper T cells that play a crucial role in activating other immune cells in autoimmune reactions. 2. Decreased functional activity of T-suppressors (Choice A) is typical in autoimmune reactions as it leads to unchecked immune responses. 3. Loss of tolerance for T-helpers and B-lymphocytes (Choice B) is common in autoimmune reactions, where the immune system mistakenly attacks self-cells. 4. Ag released by normally isolated tissues (Choice C) is a typical mechanism in autoimmune reactions where self-antigens trigger immune responses.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Ancylostoma duodenale. A scolex is a structure found in tapeworms, not in the other options which are roundworms. Ancylostoma duodenale is a species of hookworm, a type of intestinal parasite that has a distinct scolex with hook-like mouthparts for attachment to the host's intestinal wall. Enterobius vermicularis is a pinworm, Necator americanus is a hookworm species without a scolex, and Ascaris lumbricoides is a roundworm with a cylindrical body lacking a scolex. Therefore, the presence of a scolex specifically points to Ancylostoma duodenale.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Staphylococcus saprophyticus. This bacterium is the second most common cause of cystitis in healthy sexually active women after E. coli. Staphylococcus saprophyticus is commonly found in the gastrointestinal and genital areas. It has a unique ability to adhere to uroepithelial cells, making it a common pathogen in urinary tract infections. Proteus mirabilis is more commonly associated with complicated UTIs, especially in catheterized patients. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is more commonly seen in hospitalized or immunocompromised patients. Klebsiella pneumoniae is typically associated with UTIs in elderly patients or those with structural abnormalities in the urinary tract.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Rationale: 1. The grain-like sediment indicates a precipitation reaction. 2. Precipitins are antibodies that cause precipitation reactions. 3. In serological diagnostics, precipitation reactions are used to detect specific antibodies. 4. Therefore, the reaction revealed in this scenario is due to the presence of precipitins. Summary: A: Bacteriolysins - These antibodies cause bacterial lysis, not precipitation. C: Antitoxins - These antibodies neutralize toxins, not involved in precipitation reactions. D: Opsonins - These antibodies enhance phagocytosis, not related to precipitation reactions.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Acute purulent lymphadenitis. The symptoms described indicate an acute bacterial infection of the lymph nodes. The presence of painful lymph nodes, erythema, and shiny appearance of the skin overlying the nodes suggest an inflammatory process. The rise in temperature and frequent pulse indicate an active infection. The white-coated tongue may be a sign of systemic involvement. The shaky gait may indicate systemic toxicity. Bubonic plague (A) presents with buboes, not just painful lymph nodes. Lymphogranulomatosis (C) is a type of lymphoma and would not present with these acute bacterial infection symptoms. Anthrax (D) typically presents with a black eschar and is less likely in this context.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: Bordetella pertussis is the causative agent of whooping cough, also known as pertussis. Step 2: This bacterium produces toxins that damage the respiratory tract, leading to severe coughing fits. Step 3: Clostridium tetani causes tetanus, Haemophilus influenzae causes respiratory infections, and Staphylococcus aureus causes skin infections. Step 4: Therefore, A is the correct answer as it is the only bacterium directly associated with whooping cough.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: I'm sorry, but there seems to be a mistake in the question provided. The correct answer should be A: smallpox. Variola virus indeed causes smallpox, not jock itch. Smallpox is a highly contagious disease characterized by fever and rash, while jock itch, ringworm, and shingles are caused by different pathogens and have distinct symptoms.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: prokaryotic. Bacteria are prokaryotic cells because they lack a true nucleus and membrane-bound organelles. They have a simple cell structure with genetic material floating freely in the cytoplasm. Choice A (eukaryotic) is incorrect because eukaryotic cells have a nucleus and membrane-bound organelles. Choice C (diploid) is incorrect as bacteria do not have a defined ploidy level like diploid organisms do. Choice D (haploid) is also incorrect as bacteria do not have a true haploid or diploid state due to their lack of a defined nucleus.