A patient has symptoms of inflammation of urogenital tracts. Examination of a vaginal smear revealed big monocellular, pear-shaped organisms with the pointed spike at the posterior end of body, big nucleus and undulating membrane. What protozoa were found in the smear?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: The correct answer is A: Trichomonas vaginalis. 1. Symptoms of urogenital inflammation match Trichomonas vaginalis infection. 2. Description matches Trichomonas vaginalis characteristics: pear-shaped, pointed spike, big nucleus, undulating membrane. 3. Trichomonas hominis and buccalis do not typically infect urogenital tracts. 4. Trypanosoma gambiense causes African trypanosomiasis, not urogenital infections.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: cell wall composition. Gram staining differentiates bacteria based on the structure of their cell walls. It classifies bacteria into Gram-positive (thick peptidoglycan layer) and Gram-negative (thin peptidoglycan layer). This differentiation is crucial for identifying bacterial species and guiding treatment choices. Size and shape (choice A) are not specific to Gram staining. Presence of flagella (choice B) is related to bacterial motility, not Gram staining. Genetic material (choice D) is not directly assessed by Gram staining. Overall, the unique composition of the cell wall is the key factor in distinguishing bacteria through Gram staining.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clostridium perfringens. This bacterium is an anaerobic, Gram-positive rod that forms terminal spores and produces gas. It is commonly associated with wound infections and gas gangrene. Clostridium botulinum causes botulism and does not typically present with gas production. Bacillus anthracis is an aerobic, Gram-positive spore-forming bacterium causing anthrax. Clostridium tetani causes tetanus and does not produce gas. Thus, based on the characteristics described in the question, Clostridium perfringens is the most likely causative agent.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Gram-negative bacteria. Gram-negative bacteria have an outer membrane containing lipopolysaccharides (LPS). In the Gram staining technique, these bacteria appear pink/red due to the thin peptidoglycan layer, which allows the crystal violet stain to be washed out, revealing the safranin counterstain. Gram-positive bacteria (choice A) have a thick peptidoglycan layer but lack an outer membrane with LPS. Choice C is incorrect since only Gram-negative bacteria possess LPS in their outer membrane. Choice D is incorrect as all bacteria can be classified as either Gram-positive or Gram-negative based on their cell wall structure.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: 1. OSHA stands for Occupational Safety and Health Administration. 2. OSHA is responsible for ensuring safe and healthy working conditions in the US. 3. The U.S. Department of Labor oversees OSHA's operations and regulations. 4. Therefore, the correct answer is C, as OSHA is a division of the U.S. Department of Labor. 5. Other choices are incorrect because they are not directly related to OSHA's jurisdiction or responsibilities.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Primaquine. Primaquine is used for individual chemoprophylaxis of malaria caused by Plasmodium vivax and Plasmodium ovale. It is effective in preventing the relapse of these malaria species by eliminating the liver forms of the parasites. Chingamin (A) is not a commonly used drug for malaria prophylaxis. Pyrantel (B) is an anthelmintic drug used for treating parasitic worm infections, not malaria. Pyrimethamine (Chloridinum) (C) is primarily used in combination with sulfadoxine for treating uncomplicated malaria, not for chemoprophylaxis.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because Marburg virus and Ebola virus belong to the Filoviridae family. These viruses are characterized by their filamentous shape and are known to cause severe hemorrhagic fever in humans. Both viruses have caused outbreaks with high mortality rates. Choice A (Lassa virus and lymphocytic choriomeningitis viruses) are not part of the Filoviridae family. They belong to the Arenaviridae family, which also includes viruses that cause hemorrhagic fevers. Choice B (Chikungunya virus and Sindbis virus) are arboviruses belonging to the Togaviridae family, which are not related to the Filoviridae family. Choice D (Crimean-Congo virus and Hantaan virus) are part of the Nairoviridae and Hantaviridae families, respectively, and not the Filoviridae family.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: Gram-negative rod with safety pin appearance indicates bipolar staining. Step 2: Yersinia pestis is a Gram-negative rod causing bubonic plague. Step 3: Y. pestis has bipolar staining due to its unique F1 capsule. Step 4: The swollen lymph node and bacteremia are consistent with bubonic plague. Step 5: Therefore, the correct answer is A: Yersinia pestis. Summary: - B: Clostridium tetani causes tetanus, not characterized by a safety pin appearance. - C: Brucella melitensis causes brucellosis, not characterized by a safety pin appearance. - D: Pasteurella multocida causes animal bites infections, not characterized by a safety pin appearance.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Rotavirus. Rotavirus is a member of the Reoviridae family known for causing diarrhea in infants. It infects the lining of the small intestine, leading to symptoms like vomiting and watery diarrhea. Rationale: 1. Rotavirus is specifically known for causing diarrhea in infants. 2. Reoviruses are a family of viruses to which rotavirus belongs. 3. Congovirus (B), Hepadnavirus (C), and Picornavirus (D) do not belong to the Reoviridae family and are not associated with causing diarrhea in infants. In summary, choice A is correct as it aligns with the characteristics of the given family of viruses and their associated symptoms, while choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not fit these criteria.