A patient has schizophrenia and is troubled by negative symptoms, muscle stiffness, and motor restlessness. His Advanced Practice Nurse (APN) is considering changing the patient's antipsychotic medication, haloperidol (Haldol, a typical or first generation antipsychotic drug). For planning purposes, which medication can the nurse assume that the APN will probably choose?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Olanzapine (Zyprexa). Olanzapine is an atypical or second-generation antipsychotic that is effective in treating both positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia. It also has a lower risk of causing extrapyramidal symptoms like muscle stiffness and motor restlessness compared to typical antipsychotics like haloperidol. Chlorpromazine (A) is a typical antipsychotic with similar side effects as haloperidol. Clozapine (B) is an atypical antipsychotic that is effective for treatment-resistant schizophrenia but is usually considered as a last resort due to its potential for serious side effects. Fluoxetine (D) is an antidepressant and not typically used as a first-line treatment for schizophrenia.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: A Rationale: A: Asking about trust in the nurse is not immediately relevant as the patient's primary concern is the change in voice content. Building trust is important but addressing the content of hallucinations takes priority. B: This is relevant as commanding voices could pose a safety risk. C: Monitoring frequency helps assess severity and response to treatment. D: Understanding triggers for hallucinations is important for managing symptoms.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Agnosis - inability to recognize familiar objects or people. This is because the client's inability to recognize formerly familiar objects and people in his environment aligns with the definition of agnosis. Affect (choice A) refers to experienced feelings and emotions, which is not the issue described in the question. Apraxia (choice C) is difficulty carrying out purposeful tasks, not related to recognition of objects or people. Anhedonia (choice D) is a lack of pleasure, which is also not applicable to the client's situation. Therefore, the best fit for the client's experience is agnosis.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct initial approach is to identify the patient's verbal abuse to set standards for future dialogue. This approach addresses the behavior directly, establishes boundaries, and communicates expectations for respectful communication. Asking the patient to define 'verbally abusive language' (choice A) may not effectively address the current behavior. Providing examples of assertive communication (choice B) may not directly address the abusive behavior. Removing privileges (choice D) may escalate the situation and is not a constructive communication strategy. By identifying the patient's verbal abuse, the nurse can address the behavior effectively and work towards a respectful and therapeutic relationship.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because having to get a part-time job to help buy food may indicate financial strain within the family but does not directly relate to family-directed violence. Choice A indicates a potential history of physical discipline, which is a risk factor for violence. Choice C suggests feelings of resentment and potential retaliation, indicating a risk factor. Choice D hints at emotional abuse through manipulation and body shaming, also a risk factor. Therefore, B is the only statement that does not directly indicate a risk factor for family-directed violence.