ATI RN
Pharmacology and the Nursing Process 10th Edition Test Bank Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
A patient has reduced muscle strength following a left-sided stroke and is at risk for falling. Which intervention is most appropriate for the nursing diagnostic statement Risk for falls?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. This intervention is appropriate because it addresses the patient's reduced muscle strength following a left-sided stroke and the risk for falling. Assisting the patient into and out of bed regularly helps prevent falls by ensuring safe mobility and reducing the likelihood of accidents. It promotes independence while also providing necessary support. A: Keeping all side rails down at all times may increase the risk of falls as it removes a safety measure that can help prevent falls. B: Encouraging the patient to remain in bed most of the shift can lead to deconditioning and muscle weakness, increasing the risk of falls. C: Placing the patient in a room away from the nurses' station does not directly address the risk for falls and may hinder timely assistance in case of emergencies. In summary, option D is the most appropriate intervention as it addresses the patient's needs, promotes safety, and supports mobility to prevent falls effectively.
Question 2 of 5
A home care nurse assesses for disease complications in a client with bone cancer. The nurse knows that bone cancer may cause which electrolyte disturbance?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hypercalcemia. In bone cancer, there can be excessive release of calcium from the bones, leading to elevated blood calcium levels. This can result in various complications such as kidney stones, cardiac arrhythmias, and weakness. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is not commonly associated with bone cancer. Hyponatremia (choice B) is more commonly seen in conditions like heart failure or kidney disease. Hypomagnesemia (choice D) is not a common electrolyte disturbance in bone cancer.
Question 3 of 5
A patient verbalizes a low pain level of 2 out of 10 but exhibits extreme facial grimacing while moving around in bed. What is the nurse’s initial action in response to these observations?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct initial action for the nurse is to ask the patient about the facial grimacing with movement (Choice C). This is important because the patient may not accurately express their pain level verbally. By addressing the discrepancy between the patient's verbal report and non-verbal cues, the nurse can gather more information to assess the patient's pain accurately. By directly communicating with the patient, the nurse can ensure that the appropriate interventions are provided. Choice A is incorrect because it disregards the need to address the patient's pain assessment. Choice B assumes the patient's preference without further clarification. Choice D jumps to administering pain medication without fully assessing the situation, which could lead to inappropriate treatment.
Question 4 of 5
A client with a history of cardiac dysrhythmias is admitted to the hospital with the diagnosis of dehydration. The nurse should anticipate that the physician will order;
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for choice B being correct: 1. Dehydration leads to electrolyte imbalances, which can exacerbate cardiac dysrhythmias. 2. Small frequent intake of fluids like juices, broth, or milk helps in gradual rehydration without overwhelming the cardiovascular system. 3. This approach allows for better absorption of fluids and nutrients, promoting hydration without causing sudden shifts in electrolyte levels. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: A: Just drinking a glass of water every hour may not address electrolyte imbalances or provide adequate hydration for a client with cardiac dysrhythmias. C: NG replacement may not be necessary if the client can tolerate oral intake, and it is more invasive than needed. D: A rapid IV infusion may lead to sudden changes in electrolyte levels, potentially worsening the dysrhythmias.
Question 5 of 5
Patients are at risk for overwhelming postsplenectomy infection (OPSI) following splenectomy. Which of the ff. symptoms alerts the nurse to this possibility?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Fever. Following splenectomy, patients are at risk for OPSI due to impaired immune response. Fever is a key symptom of infection and should alert the nurse to this possibility. Bruising around the operative site (A) is expected post-surgery. Pain (B) is common after surgery and may not specifically indicate OPSI. Irritability (C) is a vague symptom and not specific to OPSI. In summary, fever is the most concerning symptom as it can indicate an underlying infection in a postsplenectomy patient.
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