A patient has reduced muscle strength following a left-sided stroke and is at risk for falling. Which intervention is most appropriate for the nursing diagnostic statement Risk for falls?

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Pharmacology and the Nursing Process 10th Edition Test Bank Quizlet Questions

Question 1 of 9

A patient has reduced muscle strength following a left-sided stroke and is at risk for falling. Which intervention is most appropriate for the nursing diagnostic statement Risk for falls?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. This intervention is appropriate because it addresses the patient's reduced muscle strength following a left-sided stroke and the risk for falling. Assisting the patient into and out of bed regularly helps prevent falls by ensuring safe mobility and reducing the likelihood of accidents. It promotes independence while also providing necessary support. A: Keeping all side rails down at all times may increase the risk of falls as it removes a safety measure that can help prevent falls. B: Encouraging the patient to remain in bed most of the shift can lead to deconditioning and muscle weakness, increasing the risk of falls. C: Placing the patient in a room away from the nurses' station does not directly address the risk for falls and may hinder timely assistance in case of emergencies. In summary, option D is the most appropriate intervention as it addresses the patient's needs, promotes safety, and supports mobility to prevent falls effectively.

Question 2 of 9

A patient verbalizes a low pain level of 2 out of 10 but exhibits extreme facial grimacing while moving around in bed. What is the nurse’s initial action in response to these observations?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct initial action for the nurse is to ask the patient about the facial grimacing with movement (Choice C). This is important because the patient may not accurately express their pain level verbally. By addressing the discrepancy between the patient's verbal report and non-verbal cues, the nurse can gather more information to assess the patient's pain accurately. By directly communicating with the patient, the nurse can ensure that the appropriate interventions are provided. Choice A is incorrect because it disregards the need to address the patient's pain assessment. Choice B assumes the patient's preference without further clarification. Choice D jumps to administering pain medication without fully assessing the situation, which could lead to inappropriate treatment.

Question 3 of 9

Following the American Cancer Society guidelines, the nurse should recommend that the women:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Have a mammogram annually. Mammograms are recommended by the American Cancer Society for breast cancer screening in women as they are effective in detecting early signs of breast cancer. Mammograms have been shown to reduce mortality rates from breast cancer. Annual mammograms are crucial for early detection and treatment. A: Performing breast self-examination annually is not recommended as a standalone screening method as it has not been shown to significantly reduce mortality rates. C: Having a normal receptor assay annually is not a standard screening test for breast cancer recommended by the American Cancer Society. D: Having a physician conduct a clinical examination every 2 years is not as effective as annual mammograms for detecting early signs of breast cancer.

Question 4 of 9

After a 3- month trail of dietary therapy, a client with type2 diabetes mellitus still has blood glucose levels above 180 mg/dl. The physician adds glyburide (DiaBeta), 2.5 mg P.O. daily, to the treatment regimen. The nurse should instruct the client to take glyburide:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 30 minutes before breakfast. Glyburide is a sulfonylurea medication that stimulates insulin release from the pancreas, enhancing glucose uptake. Taking it before breakfast ensures peak insulin levels coincide with the postprandial glucose spike, aiding in glucose control throughout the day. Option B is incorrect as taking it after dinner may lead to hypoglycemia during sleep. Option C is incorrect as midmorning is not an optimal time for a sulfonylurea dose. Option D is incorrect as taking it at bedtime may also increase the risk of hypoglycemia overnight.

Question 5 of 9

A patient who was walking in the woods disturbed a beehive, was stung, and was taken to the emergency department immediately due to allergies to bee stings. Which of the ff. symptoms would the nurse expect to see upon admission of this patient? i.Pallor around the sting bites iv. Retinal hemorrhage ii.Numbness and tingling in the extremities v. Tachycardia iii.Respiratory stridor vi. Dyspnea

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 4, 5, 2006. Upon admission, a patient with allergies to bee stings may exhibit tachycardia (increased heart rate) due to an allergic reaction. Respiratory stridor (high-pitched wheezing) may occur as a sign of airway inflammation. Retinal hemorrhage and dyspnea (difficulty breathing) are not typically associated with bee sting allergies. Pallor and numbness/tingling are also not common symptoms in this scenario. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect.

Question 6 of 9

A patient verbalizes a low pain level of 2 out of 10 but exhibits extreme facial grimacing while moving around in bed. What is the nurse’s initial action in response to these observations?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct initial action for the nurse is to ask the patient about the facial grimacing with movement (Choice C). This is because the patient's non-verbal cues (facial grimacing) are contradicting their verbal report of low pain level. By asking the patient directly, the nurse can clarify the discrepancy and gain a better understanding of the patient's actual pain level and needs. Choice A is incorrect as it disregards the patient's observed discomfort. Choice B assumes the patient does not want pain medicine without clarifying the situation first. Choice D is premature as administering pain medication without further assessment may not be appropriate or safe. In summary, asking the patient about the facial grimacing is essential to ensure accurate pain assessment and appropriate intervention.

Question 7 of 9

A client asks the nurse about the four-point gait when partial weight bearing is permitted. What is the nurse’s BEST response?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because in the four-point gait with partial weight bearing, the client should move the right crutch ahead first to provide support and stability, followed by the left foot. This sequence ensures proper weight distribution and balance. Moving both crutches together (B) may compromise stability. Moving the left crutch and right foot together (C) may cause uneven weight distribution. Moving both crutches and weaker leg together (D) may not provide adequate support for the weaker leg.

Question 8 of 9

A nurse is formulating a diagnosis for a client who is reliving a brutal mugging that took place several months ago. The client is crying uncontrollably and states that he 'can’t live with this fear.' Which of the following diagnoses for this client is correctly written?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Post-trauma syndrome related to being attacked. This diagnosis accurately reflects the client's symptoms of reliving the traumatic event, crying uncontrollably, and expressing fear. Post-trauma syndrome encompasses a range of symptoms following a traumatic event, such as flashbacks, anxiety, and emotional distress. The other choices are incorrect because they are either too vague (B: Psychological overreaction) or do not capture the specific nature of the client's symptoms (C: Needs assistance coping; D: Mental distress). Therefore, option A is the most appropriate diagnosis based on the client's presentation.

Question 9 of 9

A client has type1 diabetes. Her husband finds her unconscious at home and administers glucagons, 0.5 mg S.C. She awakens in 5 minutes .Why her husband offer a complex carbohydrate snack to her as soon as possible?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. After administering glucagon for hypoglycemia, the body may deplete its glycogen stores from the liver. Offering a complex carbohydrate snack will help restore liver glycogen, preventing secondary hypoglycemia. This is crucial for maintaining blood glucose levels in individuals with type 1 diabetes. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because offering a complex carbohydrate snack is primarily aimed at restoring liver glycogen to prevent further hypoglycemic episodes, not to address nausea/vomiting, stimulate appetite, or decrease glycogen levels.

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