ATI RN
Cardiovascular Drugs NCLEX Practice Questions Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
A patient has not come out of her room for breakfast. The nurse finds the patient moving restlessly about her room in a disorganized manner. The patient is talking to herself, and her verbal responses to the nurse are nonsensical and suggest disorientation. The nurse notices that the patient’s skin is hot and dry, and her pupils are somewhat dilated. All these symptoms are significant departures from the patient’s recent presentation. The patient is likely experiencing ________ , and the nurse should ___________.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: anticholinergic toxicity. The patient's symptoms (restlessness, disorganized movement, nonsensical speech, disorientation, hot and dry skin, dilated pupils) are indicative of anticholinergic toxicity. Anticholinergic medications can cause these symptoms by blocking the action of acetylcholine in the brain and body. The nurse should check vital signs and prepare to use a cooling blanket to lower the patient's body temperature, as anticholinergic toxicity can lead to hyperthermia. Choice B (relapse of psychosis) is incorrect because the symptoms are not typical of a simple relapse of psychosis. Choice C (neuroleptic malignant syndrome) is incorrect because the symptoms do not match the classic presentation of neuroleptic malignant syndrome, which includes fever, muscle rigidity, and altered mental status. Choice D (agranulocytosis) is incorrect because the symptoms are not consistent with agranulocytosis,
Question 2 of 5
While completing the history portion of an admission assessment of a client with schizophrenia, the nurse notices that the client is continually moving in the chair and frequently stands, then sits back down. The nurse knows that this client most likely is experiencing the side effect of:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Akathisia. Akathisia is characterized by restlessness, inability to sit still, and a constant need to move. In this scenario, the client's continual movement and inability to sit still indicate symptoms of akathisia. This side effect is commonly seen with antipsychotic medications. Explanation: 1. Drug-induced parkinsonism (Choice A) presents with symptoms similar to Parkinson's disease, such as tremors, stiffness, and shuffling gait. The client's symptoms do not align with these characteristics. 2. Dystonia (Choice B) is characterized by involuntary muscle contractions causing abnormal movements or postures. The client's symptoms do not match the sudden, sustained muscle contractions seen in dystonia. 3. Akinesia (Choice D) refers to a lack of movement or difficulty initiating movement, which is not consistent with the client's behavior of constant movement and inability to sit still.
Question 3 of 5
A patient demonstrates disoriented thinking and irrational ideas. A nurse can anticipate that a PET scan would most likely show dysfunction in the brain’s:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: frontal lobe. Disoriented thinking and irrational ideas are associated with dysfunction in the frontal lobe, responsible for decision-making, problem-solving, and emotional regulation. A PET scan would likely show decreased activity in this region. The parietal lobe (B) is primarily involved in sensory processing, the occipital lobe (C) in visual processing, and the temporal lobe (D) in memory and language functions, not directly linked to disoriented thinking.
Question 4 of 5
A patient has been taking temazepam (Restoril) for intermittent insomnia. She calls the nurse to say that when she takes it, she sleeps well, but the next day she feels 'so tired.' Which explanation by the nurse is correct?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: “These drugs affect the sleep cycle, resulting in daytime sleepiness.” Temazepam is a benzodiazepine used for insomnia by enhancing the effects of GABA neurotransmitter, which can disrupt the sleep cycle. This disruption can lead to next-day drowsiness. Choice A is incorrect as long-term use does not increase sedative effects. Choice B is incorrect as taking the drug regularly may not reduce the hangover effect. Choice D is incorrect as benzodiazepines like temazepam actually have a sedative effect and do not increase CNS activity.
Question 5 of 5
A patient has been diagnosed with angina and will be given a prescription for sublingual nitroglycerin tablets. When teaching the patient how to use sublingual nitroglycerin, the nurse will include which instruction?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: If the chest pain is not relieved after one tablet, call 911 immediately. This instruction is crucial because persistent chest pain could indicate a more serious cardiac event requiring immediate medical attention. It is important to emphasize the urgency of seeking medical help if the first dose does not provide relief. Choice A is incorrect because taking up to five doses at short intervals is not recommended and could lead to hypotension. Choice B is incorrect because chewing the tablet would bypass the sublingual route of administration, reducing the effectiveness of the medication. Choice D is incorrect because waiting 1 minute between doses is not recommended as the patient should seek emergency medical attention if the first dose does not provide relief.